CAR MED
AEROMEDICAL REGULATIONS
FOREWORD
CONTENTS
REVISION RECORD
LIST of EFFECTIVE PAGES
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FOREWORD
1. The Civil Aviation Authority Bahamas is known in these regulations as the “Authority”. The
regulations are made under the Civil Aviation Authority Act - 2021.
2. CAR MED addresses medical requirements for flight crew, cabin crew and Air Traffic Controllers
and replaces CAGR Schedule 2.
3. The Authority has adopted associated compliance or interpretative material wherever possible in
Section 2 and, unless specifically stated otherwise, clarification will be based on this material or
other internationally acceptable documentation.
4. Unless otherwise stated, applicable CAR DEF definitions and abbreviations are used throughout
this document.
5. The editing practices used in this document are as follows:
(a) ‘Shall’ is used to indicate a mandatory requirement.
(b) ‘Should’ is used to indicate a recommendation.
(c) ‘May’ is used to indicate discretion by the Authority, the industry or the applicant, as
appropriate.
(d) ‘Will’ indicates a mandatory requirement.
Note: The use of the male gender implies all genders.
6. Paragraphs and sub-paragraphs with new, amended and corrected text will be enclosed within
brackets until a subsequent “amendment” is issued.
7. Section 1 regulations are presented in Times Roman” font and Section 2 guidance material is
presented in “Arial” font.
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REVISION RECORD
REVISION NO.
EFFECTIVE DATE
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(Hardcopy only)
Initial Issue
25 March 2021
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CAR MED
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CONTENTS
Foreword ................................................................................................................................................ i
Revision Record ..................................................................................................................................... iii
List of Effective Pages ............................................................................................................................. iv
Contents ............................................................................................................................................... v
SECTION 1 REGULATIONS
CHAPTER 1 GENERAL REQUIREMENTS
Section 1 General
1.005 Competent authority ............................................................................................... 1-1-1
1.010 Reciprocal recognition............................................................................................ 1-1-1
1.015 Scope ..................................................................................................................... 1-1-1
1.020 Classes of medical assessment ................................................................................ 1-1-2
1.025 Definitions ............................................................................................................. 1-1-2
1.030 Medical confidentiality ........................................................................................... 1-1-3
1.035 Decrease in medical fitness..................................................................................... 1-1-3
1.040 Designation of medical examiners .......................................................................... 1-1-4
1.045 Obligations of AeMC or AME ............................................................................... 1-1-4
1.050 Obligations of applicants for medical certificate ..................................................... 1-1-5
1.055 Deferment .............................................................................................................. 1-1-6
Section 2 Requirements for medical certificates
1.060 Medical certificates ................................................................................................ 1-1-6
1.065 Application for a medical certificate ....................................................................... 1-1-6
1.070 Issue, revalidation and renewal of medical certificates ............................................ 1-1-7
1.075 Validity, revalidation and renewal of medical certificates ....................................... 1-1-7
1.080 Referral .................................................................................................................. 1-1-9
1.085 Medical certificate format....................................................................................... 1-1-9
CHAPTER 2 REQUIREMENTS FOR MEDICAL CERTIFICATES
Section 1 General
2.001 Limitations to medical certificates .......................................................................... 1-2-1
Section 2 Medical requirements for medical certificates
2.005 General................................................................................................................... 1-2-3
2.010 Cardiovascular System ........................................................................................... 1-2-3
2.015 Respiratory System ................................................................................................ 1-2-7
2.020 Digestive System .................................................................................................... 1-2-7
2.025 Metabolic and Endocrine Systems .......................................................................... 1-2-8
2.030 Haematology .......................................................................................................... 1-2-8
2.035 Genitourinary System ............................................................................................. 1-2-9
2.040 Infectious Disease .................................................................................................. 1-2-9
2.045 Obstetrics and Gynaecology ................................................................................. 1-2-10
2.050 Musculoskeletal System ....................................................................................... 1-2-10
2.055 Psychiatry ............................................................................................................ 1-2-11
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2.060 Psychology ........................................................................................................... 1-2-11
2.065 Neurology ............................................................................................................ 1-2-12
2.070 Visual System ...................................................................................................... 1-2-12
2.075 Colour vision ........................................................................................................ 1-2-14
2.080 Otorhino-laryngology ........................................................................................... 1-2-15
2.085 Dermatology ........................................................................................................ 1-2-16
2.090 Oncology.............................................................................................................. 1-2-16
CHAPTER 3 AERO-MEDICAL EXAMINERS (AME)
Section 1 Aero-Medical Examiners (AMEs)
3.001 Privileges ............................................................................................................... 1-3-1
3.005 Application............................................................................................................. 1-3-1
3.010 Requirements for the issue of an AME certificate ................................................... 1-3-2
3.015 Requirements for the extension of privileges .......................................................... 1-3-2
3.020 Training courses in aviation medicine ..................................................................... 1-3-2
3.025 Changes to the AME certificate .............................................................................. 1-3-2
3.030 Validity of AME certificates ................................................................................... 1-3-3
3.035 Health promotion ................................................................................................... 1-3-3
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SECTION 2 ACCEPTABLE MEANS OF COMPLIANCE AND GUIDANCE MATERIAL
General ................................................................................................................................................................... i
CHAPTER 1 General requirements
Section 1 General
AMC 1.030 Medical confidentiality .............................................................................................. 2-1-1
AMC 1.035 Decrease in medical fitness ...................................................................................... 2-1-1
AMC 1.045 Obligations of AeMC or AME .................................................................................... 2-1-1
Section 2 Requirements for medical certificates
AMC 1.060 Medical certificates ................................................................................................... 2-1-2
AMC 1.065 Application for a medical certificate ........................................................................... 2-1-2
AMC 1.075 Validity, revalidation and renewal of medical certificates ........................................... 2-1-2
CHAPTER 2 Specific requirements for class 1, class 2 and class 3 medical certificates
Section 1 General
AMC 2.001(c)(1) Limitations to class 1and class 2 medical certificates ................................................ 2-2-1
AMC 2.001(c)(4) Limitations to class 2 Cabin Crew medical certificates .............................................. 2-2-3
AMC 2.001(c)(5) Limitations to class 3 medical certificates .................................................................. 2-2-3
Section 2 Specific requirements for class 1 medical certificates
AMC1 2.010 Cardiovascular system ............................................................................................. 2-2-6
AMC1 2.015 Respiratory system ................................................................................................. 2-2-12
AMC1 2.020 Digestive system .................................................................................................... 2-2-13
AMC1 2.025 Metabolic and endocrine systems ........................................................................... 2-2-13
AMC1 2.030 Haematology .......................................................................................................... 2-2-14
AMC1 2.035 Genitourinary system .............................................................................................. 2-2-15
AMC1 2.040 Infectious disease ................................................................................................... 2-2-16
AMC1 2.045 Obstetrics and gynaecology .................................................................................... 2-2-16
AMC1 2.050 Musculoskeletal system .......................................................................................... 2-2-17
AMC1 2.055 Psychiatry .............................................................................................................. 2-2-17
AMC1 2.060 Psychology ............................................................................................................. 2-2-18
AMC1 2.065 Neurology ............................................................................................................... 2-2-18
AMC1 2.070 Visual system ......................................................................................................... 2-2-19
AMC1 2.075 Colour vision .......................................................................................................... 2-2-22
AMC1 2.080 Otorhino-laryngology .............................................................................................. 2-2-22
AMC1 2.085 Dermatology ........................................................................................................... 2-2-23
AMC1 2.090 Oncology ................................................................................................................ 2-2-23
Section 3 Specific requirements for class 2 medical certificates
AMC2 2.010 Cardiovascular system ........................................................................................... 2-2-25
AMC2 2.015 Respiratory system ................................................................................................. 2-2-28
AMC2 2.020 Digestive system .................................................................................................... 2-2-29
AMC2 2.025 Metabolic and endocrine systems ........................................................................... 2-2-29
AMC2 2.030 Haematology .......................................................................................................... 2-2-30
AMC2 2.035 Genitourinary system .............................................................................................. 2-2-31
AMC2 2.040 Infectious diseases ................................................................................................. 2-2-31
AMC2 2.045 Obstetrics and gynaecology .................................................................................... 2-2-32
AMC2 2.050 Musculoskeletal system .......................................................................................... 2-2-32
AMC2 2.055 Psychiatry .............................................................................................................. 2-2-32
AMC2 2.060 Psychology ............................................................................................................. 2-2-33
AMC2 2.065 Neurology ............................................................................................................... 2-2-33
AMC2 2.070 Visual system ......................................................................................................... 2-2-33
AMC2 2.075 Colour vision .......................................................................................................... 2-2-34
AMC2 2.080 Otorhino-laryngology .............................................................................................. 2-2-35
AMC2 2.085 Dermatology ........................................................................................................... 2-2-36
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AMC2 2.090 Oncology ................................................................................................................ 2-2-36
Section 4 Specific requirements for Class 3 medical certificates
AMC3 2.010 Cardiovascular system ........................................................................................... 2-2-37
GM1 2.010 Cardiovascular system - Mitral valve disease .......................................................... 2-2-43
GM 2 2.010 Cardiovascular system Ventricular Pre-excitation ................................................. 2-2-43
GM 3 2.010 Cardiovascular system Complete left bundle branch block ................................... 2-2-43
GM 4 2.010 Cardiovascular system - pacemaker ....................................................................... 2-2-43
GM 5 2.010 Cardiovascular system - Anticoagulation................................................................. 2-2-44
AMC3 2.015 Respiratory system ................................................................................................. 2-2-44
AMC3 2.020 Digestive system .................................................................................................... 2-2-45
AMC3 2.025 Metabolic and endocrine system ............................................................................. 2-2-46
AMC3 2.030 Haematology .......................................................................................................... 2-2-46
GM 1 2.030 Haematology Hodgkin’s leukaemia ...................................................................... 2-2-47
GM 2 2.030 Haematology Chronic leukaemia ......................................................................... 2-2-47
GM 3 2.030 Haematology - Splenomegaly ................................................................................. 2-2-47
AMC3 2.035 Genitourinary system .............................................................................................. 2-2-47
AMC3 2.040 Infectious diseases ................................................................................................. 2-2-48
GM 1 2.040 Infectious diseases HIV infection ......................................................................... 2-2-49
AMC3 2.045 Obstetrics and gynaecology .................................................................................... 2-2-49
AMC3 2.050 Musculoskeletal system .......................................................................................... 2-2-49
AMC3 2.055 Psychiatry .............................................................................................................. 2-2-49
AMC3 2.060 Psychology ............................................................................................................. 2-2-50
AMC3 2.065 Neurology ............................................................................................................... 2-2-50
AMC3 2.070 Visual system ......................................................................................................... 2-2-51
GM 1 2.070 Visual system Comparison of different reading charts .......................................... 2-2-54
AMC3 2.075 Colour vision .......................................................................................................... 2-2-55
GM 1 2.075 Colour vision .......................................................................................................... 2-2-55
AMC3 2.080 Otorhino-laryngology .............................................................................................. 2-2-55
GM 1 2.080 Otorhino-laryngology Hearing ............................................................................. 2-2-56
AMC3 2.085 Dermatology ........................................................................................................... 2-2-56
AMC3 2.090 Oncology ................................................................................................................ 2-2-56
CHAPTER 3 Aero-medical examiners (AMEs)
AMC 3.010 Requirements for the issue of an AME certificate ...................................................... 2-3-1
AMC 3.015 Requirements for the extension of privileges ............................................................. 2-3-1
GM 3.030 Refresher training in aviation medicine ..................................................................... 2-3-2
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CHAPTER 1
GENERAL REQUIREMENTS
Section 1
General
1.005 Competent authority
For the purpose of these regulations, the Authority shall be responsible for approved;
(a) aero-medical centres (AeMC) located in The Bahamas;
(b) aero-medical examiners (AME), whose principal place of practice is located in The Bahamas; and
(c) aero-medical examiners (AME), whose principal place of practice is located outside The
Bahamas.
1.010 Reciprocal recognition
The Authority may recognize, as meeting these regulations, medical certificates issued, and medical
assessments performed, by foreign aero-medical centres (AeMC) and designated aero-medical examiners
(AME) for an applicant for a licence that requires a medical certificate or renewal of that licence.
Note: The Authority shall recognize a Class 1 medical certificate conducted above as meeting
the requirements of a Class 2 or Class 3 medical assessment.
1.015 Scope
These regulations establish the requirements for:
(a) the issue, validity, revalidation and renewal of the medical certificate required for exercising the
privileges of a pilot licence, of a student pilot licence, or of a Flight Engineer licence;
(b) the issue, validity, revalidation and renewal of the medical certificate required for exercising the
privileges of an Air Traffic Controller licence or of a student Air Traffic Controller licence;
(c) the issue, validity, revalidation and renewal of the medical certificate required for exercising the
privileges of a cabin crew member; and
(d) the certification of AMEs.
1.020 Classes of medical assessments
The Authorities issues three classes of Medical Assessment as follows:
(a) Class 1 Medical Assessment applies to applicants for, and holders of:
commercial pilot licences aeroplane, airship, helicopter and powered-lift
multi-crew pilot licences aeroplane
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airline transport pilot licences aeroplane, helicopter and powered-lift
remote pilot licences
Note: A Class 1 medical assessment may be essential for a particular remote pilot based
on their work environment and responsibilities in the context of a specific RPAS
application.
(b) Class 2 Medical Assessment applies to applicants for, and holders of:
flight engineer licences
student pilot licences
private pilot licences aeroplane, airship, helicopter and powered-lift
glider pilot licences
free balloon pilot licences
cabin crew licences
Note: A Class 2 medical does not apply to a cabin crew member holding an attestation
from an ICAO Contracting State provided that cabin crew member holds a medical
certificate or report to a standard acceptable to the Authority
remote pilot licences for normal RPAS applications - see note above
(c) Class 3 Medical Assessment applies to applicants for, and holders of;
air traffic controller licences
student air traffic controller licences
1.025 Definitions
For the purpose of these regulations, the following definitions apply in addition to those in CAR DEF:
‘Assessment’ means the conclusion on the medical fitness of a person based on the evaluation of
the person’s medical history and/or aero-medical examinations as required in these regulations and
further examinations as necessary, and/or medical tests such as, but not limited to, ECG, blood
pressure measurement, blood testing, X-ray.
‘Colour safe’ means the ability of an applicant to readily distinguish the colours used in air
navigation and correctly identify aviation coloured lights.
‘Eye specialist’ means an ophthalmologist or a vision care specialist qualified in optometry and
trained to recognise pathological conditions.
‘Examination’ means an inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation or other means of
investigation especially for diagnosing disease.
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‘Investigation’ means the assessment of a suspected pathological condition of an applicant by
means of examinations and tests in order to verify the presence or absence of a medical condition.
‘Limitation’ means a condition placed on the medical certificate, licence.
‘Refractive error’ means the deviation from emmetropia measured in dioptres in the most
ametropic meridian, measured by standard methods.
1.030 Medical confidentiality
(a) All persons involved in medical examination, assessment and certification shall ensure that
medical confidentiality is respected at all times.
(b) All medical reports and records shall be securely held with accessibility restricted to authorized personnel.
1.035 Decrease in medical fitness
(a) Licence holders shall not exercise the privileges of their licence and related ratings at any time
when they:
(1) are aware of any decrease in their medical fitness which might render them unable to
safely exercise those privileges;
(2) take or use any prescribed or non-prescribed medication which is likely to interfere with
the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence;
(3) receive any medical, surgical or other treatment that is likely to interfere with flight safety.
(b) In addition, licence holders shall, without undue delay, seek aero-medical advice when they:
(1) have undergone a surgical operation or invasive procedure;
(2) have commenced the regular use of any medication;
(3) have suffered any significant personal injury involving incapacity to function as a member
of the flight crew;
(4) have been suffering from any significant illness involving incapacity to function as a
member of the flight crew;
(5) are pregnant;
(6) have been admitted to hospital or medical clinic;
(7) first require correcting lenses.
(c) In these cases, holders of Class 1, Class 2 and Class 3 medical certificates shall seek the advice of
an AeMC or AME. The AeMC or AME shall assess the medical fitness of the licence holder and
decide whether they are fit to resume the exercise of their privileges;
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1.040 Designation of medical examiners
(a) The Authority shall designate medical examiners, qualified and licensed in the practice of
medicine, to conduct medical examinations of fitness of applicants for the issue or renewal of the
licences or ratings.
(b) The Authority shall use the services of medical assessors to evaluate reports submitted by medical
examiners.
1.045 Obligations of AeMC and AME
(a) When conducting medical examinations and/or assessments, AeMC or AME, shall;
(1) ensure that communication with the person can be established without language barriers;
(2) make the person aware of the consequences of providing incomplete, inaccurate or false
statements on their medical history.
(b) After completion of the aero-medical examinations and/or assessment, the AeMC or AME shall:
(1) advise the person whether fit, unfit or referred to the Authority, AeMC or AME as
applicable;
(2) inform the person of any limitation that may restrict flight training or the privileges of the
licence;
(3) if the person has been assessed as unfit, inform him/her of his/her right of a secondary
review; and
(4) in the case of applicants for a medical certificate, submit without delay a signed, or
electronically authenticated, report to include the assessment result and a copy of the
medical certificate to the Authority.
(c) AeMCs or AMEs shall maintain records with details of medical examinations and assessments
performed in accordance with these regulations and their results in accordance with national
legislation.
(d) When required for medical certification and/or oversight functions, AeMCs or AMEs shall submit
to the medical assessor of the Authority upon request all aero-medical records and reports, and any
other relevant information.
(e) Having completed the medical examination of the applicant in accordance with these regulations,
the medical examiner shall coordinate the results of the examination and submit a signed report, or
equivalent, to the Authority, in accordance with its requirements, detailing the results of the
examination and evaluating the findings with regard to medical fitness.
(f) If the medical report is submitted to the Authority in electronic format, adequate identification of
the examiner shall be established.
(g) If the medical examination is carried out by two or more medical examiners, the Authority shall
appoint one of these to be responsible for coordinating the results of the examination, evaluating
the findings with regard to medical fitness, and signing the report.
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(h) The medical examiner shall be required to submit sufficient information to the Authority to enable
it to undertake Medical Assessment audits.
(i) When justified by operational considerations, the medical assessor shall determine to what extent
pertinent medical information is presented to Authority.
(j) In accordance with Chapter 3, medical examiners shall have received training in aviation medicine
and shall receive refresher training at regular intervals.
(k) Before designation, medical examiners shall demonstrate adequate competency in aviation
medicine.
(l) Any false declaration to a medical examiner made by an applicant for a licence or rating shall be
reported to the Authority for such action as may be considered appropriate.
1.050 Obligations of applicants for medical certificate
Applicants for licences or ratings for which medical fitness is prescribed shall sign and furnish to the
medical examiner a declaration stating whether they have previously undergone such an examination and,
if so, the date, place and result of the last examination. They shall indicate to the examiner whether a
Medical Assessment has previously been refused, revoked or suspended and, if so, the reason for such
refusal, revocation or suspension.
1.055 Deferment
The prescribed re-examination of a licence holder operating in an area distant from designated medical
examination facilities may be deferred at the discretion of the Authority, provided that such deferment
shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed;
(a) a single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-
commercial operations;
(b) two consecutive periods each of three months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft
engaged in commercial operations provided that in each case a favourable medical report is
obtained after examination by a designated medical examiner of the area concerned, or, in cases
where such a designated medical examiner is not available, by a physician legally qualified to
practise medicine in that area. A report of the medical examination shall be sent to the Authority;
(c) in the case of a private pilot, a single period not exceeding 24 months where the medical
examination is carried out by an examiner designated by the Contracting State in which the
applicant is temporarily located. A report of the medical examination shall be sent to the Authority
where the licence was issued.
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Section 2
Requirements for medical certificates
1.060 Medical certificates
(a) A student pilot shall not fly solo unless that student pilot holds a Class 1 or Class 2 medical
certificate, as required for the relevant licence.
(b) Applicants for and holders of an Air Traffic Controller licence or student Air Traffic Controller
licence shall hold at least a Class 3 medical certificate.
(c) Applicants for and holders of a private pilot licence (PPL), a sailplane pilot licence (SPL), a
balloon pilot licence (BPL) shall hold at least a Class 2 medical certificate.
(d) Applicants for and holders of an SPL or a BPL involved in commercial sailplane or balloon flights
shall hold at least a Class 2 medical certificate.
(e) If a night rating is added to a PPL, the licence holder shall be colour safe.
(f) Applicants for and holders of a commercial pilot licence (CPL), a multi-crew pilot licence (MPL),
or an airline transport pilot licence (ATPL) shall hold a Class 1 medical certificate.
(g) Applicants for and holders of a flight engineer licence shall hold a Class 2 medical certificate.
(h) Applicants for and holders of a cabin crew licence shall hold a Class 2 medical certificate.
Note: A Class 2 medical does not apply to a cabin crew member holding an attestation from an
ICAO Contracting State provided that cabin crew member holds a medical certificate or
report to a standard acceptable to the Authority
(i) If an instrument rating is added to a PPL, the licence holder shall undertake pure tone audiometry
examinations in accordance with the periodicity and the standard required for Class 1 medical
certificate holders.
(j) Applicants for and holders of a remote pilot licence (RPL) shall hold a Class 2 medical certificate.
(k) A licence holder shall not at any time hold more than one medical certificate issued in accordance
with these regulations.
1.065 Application for a medical certificate
(a) Applications for a medical certificate shall be made in a format established by the Authority.
(b) Applicants for a medical certificate shall provide the AeMC or AME, with:
(1) proof of their identity;
(2) a signed declaration:
(i) of medical facts concerning their familial and hereditary medical history;
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(ii) as to whether they have previously undergone an examination for a medical
certificate and, if so, by whom and with what result;
(iii) as to whether they have ever been assessed as unfit or had a medical certificate
suspended or revoked.
(c) When applying for a revalidation or renewal of the medical certificate, applicants shall present the
medical certificate to the AeMC or AME prior to the relevant examinations.
(d) The applicant shall be made aware of the necessity for giving a statement that is as complete and
accurate as the applicant’s knowledge permits, and any false statement shall be reported to the
Authority for such action as may be considered appropriate.
1.070 Issue, revalidation and renewal of medical certificates
(a) A medical certificate shall only be issued, revalidated or renewed once the required medical
examinations and/or assessments have been completed and a fit assessment is made.
(b) Initial issue:
(1) Class 1, Class 2 or Class 3 medical certificates shall be issued by an AeMC or an AME.
(c) Revalidation and renewal:
(1) Class 1, Class 2 or Class 3 medical certificates shall be revalidated or renewed by an
AeMC or an AME.
(d) The AeMC or AME shall only issue, revalidate or renew a medical certificate if:
(1) the applicant has provided them with a complete medical history and, if required by the
AeMC or AME, results of medical examinations and tests conducted by the applicant’s
doctor or any medical specialists; and
(2) the AeMC or AME have conducted the aero-medical assessment based on the medical
examinations and tests as required for the relevant medical certificate to verify that the
applicant complies with all the relevant requirements of these regulations.
(e) The AME, AeMC or, in the case of referral, the Authority may require the applicant to undergo
additional medical examinations and investigations when clinically indicated before they issue,
revalidate or renew a medical certificate.
(f) The Authority may issue or re-issue a medical certificate, as applicable, if;
(1) a case is referred;
(2) it has identified that corrections to the information on the certificate are necessary.
1.075 Validity, revalidation and renewal of medical certificates
The level of medical fitness to be met for the renewal of a Medical Assessment shall be the same as that
for the initial assessment except where otherwise specifically stated in these regulations. The period of
validity of a Medical Assessment, as stated below, may be reduced when clinically indicated.
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(a) Validity
(1) Class 1 medical certificates shall be valid for a period of 12 months.
(2) The period of validity of Class 1 medical certificates shall be reduced to 6 months for
licence holders who:
(i) are engaged in single-pilot commercial air transport operations carrying passengers
and have reached the age of 40;
(ii) have reached the age of 60.
(3) Class 2 medical certificates for flight crew shall be valid for a period of;
(i) 60 months until the licence holder reaches the age of 40. A medical certificate
issued prior to reaching the age of 40 shall cease to be valid after the licence holder
reaches the age of 42;
(ii) 24 months between the age of 40 and 50. A medical certificate issued prior to
reaching the age of 50 shall cease to be valid after the licence holder reaches the
age of 51; and
(iii) 12 months after the age of 50.
(4) Class 2 medical certificates for cabin crew shall be valid for a period of;
(i) 24 months for cabin crew regardless of age.
(5) Class 3 medical certificates shall be valid for a period of;
(i) 48 months until the licence holder reaches the age of 40. A medical certificate
issued prior to reaching the age of 40 shall cease to be valid after the licence holder
reaches the age of 41;
(ii) 24 months after the age of 40; and
(iii) 12 months after the age of 50.
(6) The validity period of a medical certificate, including any associated examination or
special investigation, shall be:
(i) determined by the age of the applicant at the date when the medical examination
takes place; and
(ii) calculated from the date of the medical examination in the case of initial issue and
renewal, and from the expiry date of the previous medical certificate in the case of
revalidation.
(b) Revalidation
Examinations and/or assessments for the revalidation of a medical certificate may be undertaken
up to 45 days prior to the expiry date of the medical certificate.
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(c) Renewal
(1) If the holder of a medical certificate does not comply with (b), a renewal examination
and/or assessment shall be required.
(2) If the medical certificate has expired for:
(i) less than 2 years, a routine revalidation aero-medical examination shall be
performed;
(ii) more than 2 years, the AeMC or AME shall only conduct the renewal examination
after assessment of the aero-medical records of the applicant;
(iii) if the medical certificate has expired for more than 5 years, the examination
requirements for initial issue shall apply and the assessment shall be based on the
revalidation requirements.
(d) Extension
The period of validity of a Medical Assessment may be extended, at the discretion of the
Authority, up to 45 days.
1.080 Referral
(a) If an applicant for a medical certificate is referred to the Authority in accordance with MED.
2.001, the AeMC or AME shall transfer the relevant medical documentation to the Authority.
1.085 Medical certificate format
The medical certificate shall conform to the following specifications:
(a) Content
(1) State where the licence has been issued or applied for (I),
(2) Class of medical certificate (II),
(3) Certificate number commencing with the UN country code of The Bahamas (BHS) and
followed by a code of numbers and/or letters in Arabic numerals and Latin script (III),
(4) Name of holder (IV),
(5) Nationality of holder (VI),
(6) Date of birth of holder: (dd/mm/yyyy) (XIV),
(7) Signature of holder (VII)
(8) Limitation(s) (XIII)
(9) Expiry date of the medical certificate (IX)
(10) Date of medical examination
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(11) Date of last electrocardiogram
(12) Date of last audiogram
(13) Date of issue and signature of the AME or medical assessor that issued the certificate (X).
(14) Seal or stamp (XI)
(15) Material: The paper or other material used shall prevent or readily show any alterations or
erasures. Any entries or deletions to the form shall be clearly authorised by the Authority.
(b) Language: Licences shall be written in the English language.
(c) All dates on the medical certificate shall be written in a dd/mm/yyyy format.
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CHAPTER 2
REQUIREMENTS FOR MEDICAL CERTIFICATES
Section 1
General
2.001 Limitations to medical certificates
(a) Limitations to medical certificates
(1) If the applicant does not fully comply with the requirements for the relevant class of
medical certificate but is considered to be not likely to jeopardise flight safety, the AeMC
or AME shall:
(i) in the case of applicants for a Class 1 medical certificate, refer the decision on
fitness of the applicant to the Authority as indicated in this Chapter ;
(ii) in cases where a referral to the Authority is not indicated in this Chapter , evaluate
whether the applicant is able to perform his/her duties safely when complying with
one or more limitations endorsed on the medical certificate, and issue the medical
certificate with limitation(s) as necessary;
(iii) in the case of applicants for a Class 2 or Class 3 medical certificate, evaluate
whether the applicant is able to perform his/her duties safely when complying with
one or more limitations endorsed on the medical certificate, and issue the medical
certificate, as necessary with limitation(s), in consultation with the Authority;
(iv) The AeMC or AME may revalidate or renew a medical certificate with the same
limitation without referring the applicant to the Authority.
(b) When assessing whether a limitation is necessary, particular consideration shall be given to:
(1) whether accredited medical conclusion indicates that in special circumstances the
applicant’s failure to meet any requirement, whether numerical or otherwise, is such that
exercise of the privileges of the licence is not likely to jeopardise the safe exercise of the
privileges of the licence;
(2) the applicant’s ability, skill and experience relevant to the operation to be performed.
(c) Operational limitation codes
(1) Operational multi-pilot limitation (OML Class 1 only)
(i) When the holder of a CPL, ATPL or MPL does not fully meet the requirements for
a Class 1 medical certificate and has been referred to the Authority, it shall be
assessed whether the medical certificate may be issued with an OML ‘valid only as
or with qualified co-pilot’. This assessment shall be performed by the Authority.
(ii) The holder of a medical certificate with an OML shall only operate an aircraft in
multi-pilot operations when the other pilot is fully qualified on the relevant type of
aircraft, is not subject to an OML and has not attained the age of 60 years.
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(iii) The OML for Class 1 medical certificates may only be imposed and removed by
the Authority.
(2) Operational Safety Pilot Limitation (OSL Class 2 privileges)
(i) The holder of a medical certificate with an OSL limitation shall only operate an
aircraft if another pilot fully qualified to act as pilot-in-command on the relevant
class or type of aircraft is carried on board, the aircraft is fitted with dual controls
and the other pilot occupies a seat at the controls.
(ii) The OSL for Class 2 medical certificates may be imposed or removed by an AeMC
or AME in consultation with the Authority.
(3) Operational Passenger Limitation (OPL Class 2 flight crew privileges)
(i) The holder of a medical certificate with an OPL limitation shall only operate an
aircraft without passengers on board.
(ii) An OPL for Class 2 medical certificates may be imposed by an AeMC or AME in
consultation with the Authority.
(4) Operational limitations (OPL Class 2 cabin crew privileges)
(i) The Authority, in conjunction with the aircraft operator, shall determine the
operational limitations applicable in the specific operational environment
concerned.
(ii) Appropriate operational limitations shall only be placed on the medical certificate by
the licensing authority.
(5) Operational limitations (OPL Class 3 privileges)
(i) The Authority, in conjunction with the air navigation service provider, shall
determine the operational limitations applicable in the specific operational
environment concerned.
(ii) Appropriate operational limitations shall only be placed on the medical certificate by
the licensing authority.
(d) Any other limitation may be imposed on the holder of a medical certificate if required to ensure
flight safety.
(e) Any limitation imposed on the holder of a medical certificate shall be specified therein.
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Section 2
Medical requirements for medical certificates
2.005 General
(a) Applicants for a medical certificate shall be free from any:
(1) abnormality, congenital or acquired;
(2) active, latent, acute or chronic disease or disability;
(3) wound, injury or sequelae from operation;
(4) effect or side effect of any prescribed or non-prescribed therapeutic, diagnostic or
preventive medication taken;.
(b) In cases where the decision on medical fitness of an applicant for a medical certificate is referred
to the Authority, this authority may delegate such a decision to an AME, except in cases where a
limitation is needed.
2.010 Cardiovascular System
(a) Examination
(1) A standard 12-lead resting electrocardiogram (ECG) and report shall be completed on
clinical indication, and:
(i) for a Class 1 medical certificate, at the examination for the first issue of a medical
certificate, then every 5 years until age 30, every 2 years until age 40, annually until
age 50, and at all revalidation or renewal examinations thereafter;
(ii) for a Class 2 medical certificate, at the first examination after age 40 and then every
2 years after age 50.
(iii) for a Class 3 medical certificate, at the examination for the first issue of a medical
certificate, then every 4 years until age 30, and at all revalidation or renewal
examinations thereafter;
(2) Extended cardiovascular assessment shall be required when clinically indicated.
(3) For all medical certificates, an extended cardiovascular assessment shall be completed at
the first revalidation or renewal examination after age 65 and every 4 years thereafter.
(4) For all medical certificates, estimation of serum lipids, including cholesterol, shall be
required at the examination for the first issue of a medical certificate, and at the first
examination after having reached the age of 40.
(b) Cardiovascular System General
(1) Applicants shall not suffer from any cardiovascular disorder which is likely to interfere
with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
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(2) Applicants for a Class 1 or Class 3 medical certificate with any of the following conditions
shall be assessed as unfit:
(i) aneurysm of the thoracic or supra-renal abdominal aorta, before or after surgery;
(ii) significant functional abnormality of any of the heart valves;
(iii) heart or heart/lung transplantation.
(3) Applicants for a Class 1 or Class 3 medical certificate with an established history or
diagnosis of any of the following conditions shall be referred to the Authority before a fit
assessment may be considered:
(i) peripheral arterial disease before or after surgery;
(ii) aneurysm of the abdominal aorta, after surgery;
(iii) aneurysm of the infra-renal abdominal aorta after surgery;
(iv) functionally insignificant cardiac valvular abnormalities;
(v) after cardiac valve surgery;
(vi) abnormality of the pericardium, myocardium or endocardium;
(vii) congenital abnormality of the heart, before or after corrective surgery;
(viii) recurrent vasovagal syncope;
(ix) arterial or venous thrombosis;
(x) pulmonary embolism;
(xi) cardiovascular condition requiring systemic anticoagulant therapy.
(4) Applicants for a Class 2 medical certificate with an established diagnosis of one of the
conditions specified in (2) and (3) above shall be assessed by a cardiologist before a fit
assessment can be considered in consultation with the Authority.
(c) Blood Pressure
(1) The blood pressure shall be recorded at each examination.
(2) The applicant’s blood pressure shall be within normal limits.
(3) Applicants for a Class 1 or Class 3 medical certificate shall be assessed as unfit:
(i) They have symptomatic hypotension; or
(ii) When their blood pressure at examination consistently exceeds 150 mmHg systolic
and/or 95 mmHg diastolic, with or without treatment;
.
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(4) The initiation of medication for the control of blood pressure shall require a period of
temporary suspension of the medical certificate to establish the absence of significant side
effects.
(d) Coronary Artery Disease
(1) Applicants for all medical certificates with the following conditions shall be assessed as
unfit:
(i) symptomatic coronary artery disease;
(ii) symptoms of coronary artery disease controlled by medication;
(2) Applicants for all medical certificates with any of the conditions detailed in (1) shall
undergo cardiological evaluation before a fit assessment can be considered.
(3) Applicants with any of the following conditions shall be assessed as unfit:
(i) suspected myocardial ischaemia;
(ii) asymptomatic minor coronary artery disease controlled by medication;
(4) Applicants for the initial issue of a Class 1 or Class 3 medical certificate with a history or
diagnosis of any of the following conditions shall be assessed as unfit:
(i) myocardial ischaemia;
(ii) myocardial infarction;
(iii) revascularisation for coronary artery disease.
(5) Applicants for a Class 2 medical certificate who are asymptomatic following myocardial
infarction or surgery for coronary artery disease shall undergo satisfactory cardiological
evaluation before a fit assessment can be considered in consultation with the Authority.
Applicants for the revalidation of a Class 1 or Class 3 medical certificate shall be referred
to the Authority.
(e) Rhythm/Conduction Disturbances
(1) Applicants for a Class 1 or Class 3 medical certificate shall be referred to the Authority
when they have any significant disturbance of cardiac conduction or rhythm, intermittent
or established, including any of the following:
(i) disturbance of supraventricular rhythm, including intermittent or established
sinoatrial dysfunction, atrial fibrillation and/or flutter and asymptomatic sinus
pauses;
(ii) complete left bundle branch block;
(iii) Mobitz type 2 atrioventricular block;
(iv) broad and/or narrow complex tachycardia;
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(v) ventricular pre-excitation;
(vi) asymptomatic QT prolongation;
(vii) Brugada pattern on electrocardiography.
(2) Applicants for a Class 2 medical certificate with any of the conditions detailed in (1) shall
undergo satisfactory cardiological evaluation before a fit assessment in consultation with
the Authority can be considered.
(3) Applicants with any of the following:
(i) incomplete bundle branch block;
(ii) complete right bundle branch block;
(iii) stable left axis deviation;
(iv) asymptomatic sinus bradycardia;
(v) asymptomatic sinus tachycardia;
(vi) asymptomatic isolated uniform supra-ventricular or ventricular ectopic complexes;
(vii) first degree atrioventricular block;
(viii) Mobitz type 1 atrioventricular block;
may be assessed as fit in the absence of any other abnormality and subject to satisfactory
cardiological evaluation.
(4) Applicants with a history of:
(i) ablation therapy;
(ii) pacemaker implantation;
shall undergo satisfactory cardiovascular evaluation before a fit assessment can be
considered. Applicants for a Class 1 or Class 3 medical certificate shall be referred to the
Authority. Applicants for a Class 2 medical certificate may be assessed as fit in the absence
of any other abnormality and subject to satisfactory cardiological evaluation.
(5) Applicants with any of the following conditions shall be assessed as unfit:
(i) symptomatic sinoatrial disease;
(ii) complete atrioventricular block;
(iii) symptomatic QT prolongation;
(iv) an automatic implantable defibrillating system;
(v) a ventricular anti-tachycardia pacemaker.
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2.015 Respiratory System
(a) Applicants with significant impairment of pulmonary function shall be assessed as unfit. A fit
assessment may be considered once pulmonary function has recovered and is satisfactory.
(b) For a Class 1 and Class 3 medical certificate, applicants are required to undertake pulmonary
function tests at the initial examination and on clinical indication.
(c) For a Class 2 medical certificate, applicants are required to undertake pulmonary function tests on
clinical indication.
(d) Applicants with a history or established diagnosis of the following:
(1) active inflammatory disease of the respiratory system;
(2) active sarcoidosis;
(3) pneumothorax;
(4) sleep apnoea syndrome;
(5) major thoracic surgery;
(6) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease;
(7) lung transplantation.
shall undergo respiratory evaluation with a satisfactory result before a fit assessment can be
considered. Applicants with an established diagnosis of the conditions above shall undergo
satisfactory cardiological evaluation before a fit assessment can be considered.
2.020 Digestive System
(a) Applicants shall not possess any functional or structural disease of the gastro-intestinal tract or its
adnexa which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable
licence(s).
(b) Applicants with any sequelae of disease or surgical intervention in any part of the digestive tract
or its adnexa likely to cause incapacitation, in particular any obstruction due to stricture or
compression shall be assessed as unfit.
(c) Applicants shall be free from herniae that might give rise to incapacitating symptoms.
(d) Applicants with disorders of the gastro-intestinal system including:
(1) recurrent dyspeptic disorder requiring medication;
(2) pancreatitis;
(3) symptomatic gallstones;
(4) an established diagnosis or history of chronic inflammatory bowel disease;
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(5) after surgical operation on the digestive tract or its adnexa, including surgery involving
total or partial excision or a diversion of any of these organs;
shall be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered after successful treatment or full
recovery after surgery and subject to satisfactory gastroenterological evaluation.
(e) Aero-medical assessment:
(1) applicants for a Class 1 or Class 3 medical certificate with the diagnosis of the conditions
specified above shall be referred to the Authority;
(2) fitness of Class 2 applicants with pancreatitis shall be assessed in consultation with the
Authority.
2.025 Metabolic and Endocrine Systems
(a) Applicants shall not possess any functional or structural metabolic, nutritional or endocrine
disorder which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable
licence(s).
(b) Applicants with metabolic, nutritional or endocrine dysfunction may be assessed as fit subject to
demonstrated stability of the condition and satisfactory aero-medical evaluation.
(c) Diabetes mellitus
(1) Applicants with diabetes mellitus requiring insulin shall be assessed as unfit.
(2) Applicants with diabetes mellitus not requiring insulin shall be assessed as unfit unless it
can be demonstrated that blood sugar control has been achieved (i.e. HBA1C of < 9%).
(d) Aero-medical assessment:
(1) applicants for a Class 1 or Class 3 medical certificate requiring medication other than
insulin for blood sugar control shall be referred to the Authority;
(2) fitness of Class 2 applicants requiring medication other than insulin for blood sugar control
shall be assessed in consultation with the Authority.
2.030 Haematology
(a) Applicants shall not possess any haematological disease which is likely to interfere with the safe
exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
(b) For all medical certificates, haemoglobin shall be tested at each examination for the issue of a
medical certificate.
(c) Applicants with a haematological condition, such as:
(1) coagulation, haemorragic or thrombotic disorder;
(2) chronic leukaemia;
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(3) abnormal haemoglobin, including but not limited to anaemia, erythrocytosis or
haemoglobinopathy;
(4) significant lymphatic enlargement;
(5) enlargement of the spleen;
may be assessed as fit subject to satisfactory aeromedical evaluation.
(d) Aero-medical assessment:
(1) applicants for a Class 1 or Class 3 medical certificate with one of the conditions specified
in (c) above shall be referred to the Authority;
(2) fitness of Class 2 applicants with one of the conditions specified in (c) above shall be
assessed in consultation with the Authority.
(e) Applicants suffering from acute leukaemia shall be assessed as unfit.
(1) enlargement of the spleen.
2.035 Genitourinary System
(a) Applicants shall not possess any functional or structural disease of the renal or genito-urinary
system or its adnexa which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the
applicable licence(s).
(b) Urinalysis shall form part of every aero-medical examination. The urine shall contain no abnormal
element considered to be of pathological significance.
(c) Applicants with any sequela of disease or surgical procedures on the kidneys or the urinary tract
likely to cause incapacitation, in particular any obstruction due to stricture or compression shall be
assessed as unfit.
(d) Applicants with a genitourinary disorder, such as:
(1) renal disease;
(2) one or more urinary calculi, or a history of renal colic;
may be assessed as fit subject to satisfactory renal/urological evaluation.
(e) Applicants who have undergone a major surgical operation in the urinary apparatus involving a
total or partial excision or a diversion of its organs shall be assessed as unfit and be re-assessed
after full recovery before a fit assessment can be considered. Applicants for a Class 1 or Class 3
medical certificate shall be referred to the Authority for the re-assessment.
2.040 Infectious Disease
(a) Applicants shall have no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any infectious disease
which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence held.
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(b) Applicants who are HIV positive shall be referred to the Authority and may be assessed as fit
subject to satisfactory specialist evaluation and provided the Authority has sufficient evidence that
the therapy does not compromise the safe exercise of the privileges of the licence.
(c) Applicants diagnosed with or presenting symptoms of infectious disease such as:
(1) acute syphilis;
(2) active tuberculosis;
(3) infectious hepatitis;
(4) tropical diseases;
shall be referred to the Authority for an aero-medical assessment. A fit assessment may be
considered after full recovery and specialist evaluation provided the Authority has sufficient
evidence that the therapy does not compromise the safe exercise of the privileges of the licence.
.
2.045 Obstetrics and Gynaecology
(a) Applicants shall not possess any functional or structural obstetric or gynaecological condition
which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
(b) Applicants who have undergone a major gynaecological operation shall be assessed as unfit until
full recovery.
(c) Pregnancy
(1) In the case of pregnancy, if the AeMC or AME considers that the licence holder is fit to
exercise her privileges, he/she shall limit the validity period of the medical certificate to
the end of the 26
th
week of gestation for holders of a Class 1 medical certificate and 34
th
week of gestation for holders of a Class 3 medical certificate. After this point, the
certificate shall be suspended. The suspension shall be lifted after full recovery following
the end of the pregnancy.
(2) Holders of Class 1 medical certificates shall only exercise the privileges of their licences
until the 26
th
week of gestation with an OML. Notwithstanding MED. 2.001 in this case,
the OML may be imposed and removed by the AeMC or AME.
2.050 Musculoskeletal System
(a) Applicants shall not possess any abnormality of the bones, joints, muscles or tendons, congenital
or acquired which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable
licence(s).
(b) An applicant shall have sufficient sitting height, arm and leg length and muscular strength for the
safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
(c) An applicant shall have satisfactory functional use of the musculoskeletal system to enable the
safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s). Fitness of the applicants shall be
assessed in consultation with the Authority.
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2.055 Psychiatry
(a) Applicants shall have no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any psychiatric
disease or disability, condition or disorder, acute or chronic, congenital or acquired, which is
likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
(b) Applicants with a mental or behavioural disorder due to alcohol or other use or abuse of
psychoactive substances, including recreational substances with or without dependency, shall be
assessed as unfit until after a period of documented sobriety or freedom from psychoactive
substance use or misuse and subject to satisfactory psychiatric evaluation after successful
treatment. Applicants for a Class 1 or Class 3 medical certificate shall be referred to the Authority.
Fitness of Class 2 applicants shall be assessed in consultation with the Authority.
(c) Applicants with a psychiatric condition such as:
(1) mood disorder;
(2) neurotic disorder;
(3) personality disorder;
(4) mental or behavioural disorder;
shall undergo satisfactory psychiatric evaluation before a fit assessment can be made.
(d) Applicants with a history of a single or repeated acts of deliberate self-harm shall be assessed as
unfit. Applicants shall undergo satisfactory psychiatric evaluation before a fit assessment can be
considered.
(e) Aero-medical assessment:
(1) applicants for a Class 1 or Class 3 medical certificate with one of the conditions detailed in
(b), (c) or (d) above shall be referred to the Authority;
(2) fitness of Class 2 applicants with one of the conditions detailed in (b), (c) or (d) above shall
be assessed in consultation with the Authority.
(f) Applicants with an established history or clinical diagnosis of schizophrenia, schizotypal or
delusional disorder shall be assessed as unfit.
2.060 Psychology
(a) Applicants shall have no established psychological deficiencies, which are likely to interfere with
the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
(b) Applicants who present with stress-related symptoms that are likely to interfere with their ability to
exercise the privileges of the licence safely shall be referred to the licensing authority. A fit
assessment may only be considered after a psychological and/or psychiatric evaluation has
demonstrated that the applicant has recovered from stress- related symptoms.
(c) A psychological evaluation may be required as part of, or complementary to, a specialist
psychiatric or neurological examination.
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2.065 Neurology
(a) Applicants shall have no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any neurological
condition which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable
licence(s).
(b) Applicants with an established history or clinical diagnosis of the following shall be assessed as
unfit.
(1) Epilepsy except in cases of (C)(1) and (C)(2) below;
(2) recurring episodes of disturbance of consciousness of uncertain cause;
(3) conditions with a high propensity for cerebral dysfunction.
(c) Applicants with an established history or clinical diagnosis of:
(1) epilepsy without recurrence after age 5;
(2) epilepsy without recurrence and off all treatment for more than 10 years;
(3) epileptiform EEG abnormalities and focal slow waves;
(4) progressive or non-progressive disease of the nervous system;
(5) a single episode of disturbance of consciousness;
(6) brain injury;
(7) spinal or peripheral nerve injury;
(8) disorders of the nervous system due to vascular deficiencies including haemorrhagic and
ishaemic events.
shall undergo further evaluation before a fit assessment can be considered. Applicants for a Class
1 or Class 3 medical certificate shall be referred to the Authority. Fitness of Class 2 applicants
shall be assessed in consultation with the Authority.
2.070 Visual System
(a) Applicants shall not possess any abnormality of the function of the eyes or their adnexa or any
active pathological condition, congenital or acquired, acute or chronic, or any sequelae of eye
surgery or trauma, which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the
applicable licence(s).
(b) Examination
(1) For a Class 1 medical certificate:
(i) a comprehensive eye examination shall form part of the initial examination and be
undertaken periodically depending on the refraction and the functional performance
of the eye;
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(ii) a routine eye examination shall form part of all revalidation and renewal
examinations.
(2) For a Class 2 medical certificate:
(i) a routine eye examination shall form part of the initial and all revalidation and
renewal examinations; and
(ii) a comprehensive eye examination shall be undertaken when clinically indicated.
(3) For a Class 3 medical certificate:
(i) a comprehensive eye examination shall form part of the initial examination and be
undertaken periodically depending on the refraction and the functional performance
of the eye;
(ii) a routine eye examination shall form part of all revalidation and renewal
examinations.
(iii) Applicants shall undergo tonometry at the first revalidation examination after the
age of 40, on clinical indications and if indicated considering the family history.
(c) Distant visual acuity, with or without correction, shall be:
(1) in the case of Class 1 and Class 3 medical certificates, 6/9 (0,7) or better in each eye
separately and visual acuity with both eyes shall be 6/6 (1,0) or better;
(2) in the case of Class 2 medical certificates, 6/12 (0,5) or better in each eye separately and
visual acuity with both eyes shall be 6/9 (0,7) or better. An applicant with substandard
vision in one eye may be assessed as fit in consultation with the Authority subject to
satisfactory ophthalmic assessment;
(3) applicants for an initial Class 1 or Class 3 medical certificate with substandard vision in
one eye shall be assessed as unfit. At revalidation, applicants with acquired substandard
vision in one eye shall be referred to the Authority and may be assessed as fit if it is
unlikely to interfere with safe exercise of the licence held.
(d) Initial applicants having monocular or functional monocular vision, including eye muscle
balance problems, shall be assessed as unfit. At revalidation or renewal examinations the
applicant may be assessed as fit provided that an ophthalmological examination is satisfactory.
The applicant shall be referred to the Authority.
(e) An applicant shall be able to read an N5 chart (or equivalent) at 30-50 cm and an N14 chart (or
equivalent) at 60 - 100 cm distance, if necessary with the aid of correction.
(f) Applicants for a Class 1 or Class 3 medical certificate shall be required to have normal fields of
vision and normal binocular function.
(g) Applicants who have undergone eye surgery may be assessed as unfit until full recovery of the
visual function. A fit assessment may be considered by the Authority subject to satisfactory
ophthalmic evaluation.
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(h) Applicants with a clinical diagnosis of keratoconus may be assessed as fit subject to a satisfactory
examination by an ophthalmologist. Applicants for a Class 1 or Class 3 medical certificate shall be
referred to the Authority.
(i) Applicants with diplopia shall be assessed as unfit.
(j) Spectacles and contact lenses. If satisfactory visual function is achieved only with the use of
correction:
(1) (i) for distant vision, spectacles or contact lenses shall be worn whilst exercising the
privileges of the applicable licence(s);
(ii) for near vision, a pair of spectacles for near use shall be kept available during the
exercise of the privileges of the licence;
(2) a spare set of similarly correcting spectacles shall be readily available for immediate use
whilst exercising the privileges of the applicable licence(s);
(3) the correction shall provide optimal visual function, be well-tolerated and suitable for
aviation or air traffic control purposes, as appropriate;
(4) if contact lenses are worn, they shall be for distant vision, monofocal, non-tinted and not
orthokeratological;
(5) applicants with a large refractive error shall use contact lenses or high-index spectacle
lenses;
(6) Monovision contact lens shall not be used.
(7) no more than one pair of spectacles shall be used to meet the visual requirements;
(k) Applicants with a clinical diagnosis of glaucoma in one eye may be assessed as fit subject to a
satisfactory examination by an ophthalmologist indicating pressure < 21 mmHg. Applicants for a
Class 1 or Class 3 medical certificate shall be referred to the Authority.
(l) To ensure the measurement of visual acuity achieve uniformity, the Authority shall ensure that
equivalence in the methods of evaluation be obtained.
(m) The following should be adopted for tests of visual acuity:
(1) Visual acuity tests should be conducted in an environment with a level of illumination
that corresponds to ordinary office illumination (30-60 cd/m
2
).
(2) Visual acuity should be measured by means of a series of Landolt rings or similar
optotypes, placed at a distance from the applicant appropriate to the method of testing
adopted.
2.075 Colour vision
(a) Applicants shall be required to demonstrate the ability to perceive readily the colours that are
necessary for the safe performance of duties.
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(b) The applicant shall be tested for the ability to correctly identify a series of pseudoisochromatic
plates in daylight or in artificial light of the same colour temperature such as that provided by
CIE standard illuminants C or D
65
as specified by the International Commission on Illumination
(CIE).
(c) The Authority shall use the following method of examination as will guarantee reliable testing of
colour perception
(1) Applicants shall pass the Ishihara test for the initial issue of a medical certificate.
(2) Applicants who fail to pass in the Ishihara test shall undergo further colour perception
testing to establish whether they are colour safe.
(d) In the case of Class 1 or Class 3 medical certificates, applicants shall have normal perception of
colours or be colour safe. Applicants who fail further colour perception testing shall be assessed as
unfit. Applicants for a Class 1 or Class 3 medical certificate shall be referred to the Authority.
(e) In the case of Class 2 medical certificates, when the applicant does not have satisfactory
perception of colours, his/her flying privileges shall be limited to daytime only.
2.080 Otorhino-laryngology
(a) The Authority shall use such methods of examination as will guarantee reliable testing of hearing
(b) Applicants shall not possess any abnormality of the function of the ears, nose, sinuses or throat,
including oral cavity, teeth and larynx, or any active pathological condition, congenital or
acquired, acute or chronic, or any sequelae of surgery or trauma which is likely to interfere with
the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
(c) Hearing shall be satisfactory for the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s) and
a routine otorhinolaryngological examination shall form part of all initial, revalidation and
renewal examinations every 5 years until the age of 40 and every 2 years thereafter.
(d) Examination
(1) Hearing shall be tested at all examinations.
(i) In the case of Class 1 medical certificates and Class 2 medical certificates, when an
instrument rating is to be added to the licence held, hearing shall be tested with
pure tone audiometry at the initial examination and, at subsequent revalidation or
renewal examinations, every 5 years until the age 40 and every 2 years thereafter.
(ii) In the case of Class 3 medical certificates, hearing shall be tested with pure tone
audiometry at the initial examination and, at subsequent revalidation or renewal
examinations, every 4 years until the age 40 and every 2 years thereafter.
(iii) When tested on a pure-tone audiometer, initial applicants shall not have a hearing
loss of more than 35 dB at any of the frequencies 500, 1 000 or 2 000 Hz, or more
than 50 dB at 3 000 Hz, in either ear separately. Applicants for revalidation or
renewal, with greater hearing loss shall demonstrate satisfactory functional hearing
ability.
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(iv) Applicants with hypoacusis shall demonstrate satisfactory functional hearing
ability.
(e) Applicants for a Class 1 or Class 3 medical certificate with:
(1) an active pathological process, acute or chronic, of the internal or middle ear;
(2) unhealed perforation or dysfunction of the tympanic membrane(s);
(3) disturbance of vestibular function;
(4) significant malformation or significant chronic infection of the oral cavity or upper
respiratory tract;
(5) significant disorder of speech or voice;
shall undergo further medical examination and assessment to establish that the condition does not
interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the licence held.
(f) Aero-medical assessment:
(1) applicants for a Class 1 medical certificate with the disturbance of vestibular function shall
be referred to the Authority;
(2) fitness of Class 2 applicants with the disturbance of vestibular function shall be assessed in
consultation with the Authority.
(g) Hearing aids (Class 3 only):
(i) Initial examination: the need of hearing aids to comply with the hearing requirements entails
unfitness.
(ii) Revalidation and renewal examinations: a fit assessment may be considered if the use of
hearing aid(s) or of an appropriate prosthetic aid improves the hearing to achieve a
normal standard as assessed by fully functional testing in the operational environment.
(iii) If a prosthetic aid is needed to achieve the normal hearing standard, a spare set of the
equipment and accessories, such as batteries, shall be available when exercising the
privileges of the licence.
2.085 Dermatology
Applicants shall have no established dermatological condition likely to interfere with the safe exercise of
the privileges of the applicable licence(s) held.
2.090 Oncology
(a) Applicants shall have no established primary or secondary malignant disease likely to interfere
with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
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(b) After treatment for primary or secondary malignant disease, applicants shall undergo satisfactory
oncological evaluation before a fit assessment can be made. Class 1 and Class 3 applicants shall
be referred to the Authority. Fitness of Class 2 applicants shall be assessed in consultation with the
Authority.
(c) Applicants with an established history or clinical diagnosis of intracerebral malignant tumour shall
be assessed as unfit.
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CAR MED CHAPTER 3
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CHAPTER 3
AERO-MEDICAL EXAMINERS (AME)
Section 1
Aero-Medical Examiners
3.001 Privileges
(a) The privileges of an AME are to issue, revalidate and renew medical certificates, and to conduct
the relevant medical examinations and assessments.
(b) Holders of an AME certificate may apply for an extension of their privileges to include medical
examinations for the revalidation and renewal of Class 1 medical certificates, if they comply with
the requirements in 3.015.
(c) The scope of the privileges of the AME, and any condition thereof, shall be specified in the
certificate.
(d) Holders of a certificate as an AME shall not undertake aero-medical examinations and
assessments in another State unless they have:
(1) been granted access by the State to exercise their professional activities as a specialised
doctor;
(2) informed the Authority of the State of their intention to conduct aero-medical examinations
and assessments and to issue medical certificates within the scope of their privileges as
AME; and
(3) received a briefing or guidance material from the National Aviation Authority of that State.
3.005 Application
(a) Application for a certificate as an AME shall be made in a form and manner specified by the
Authority.
(b) Applicants for an AME certificate shall provide the Authority with:
(1) personal details and professional address;
(2) documentation demonstrating that they comply with the requirements established in 3.010,
including a certificate of completion of the training course in aviation medicine appropriate
to the privileges they apply for;
(3) a written declaration that the AME will issue medical certificates on the basis of the
requirements of these regulations.
(c) When the AME undertakes aero-medical examinations in more than one location, they shall
provide the Authority with relevant information regarding all practice locations.
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3.010 Requirements for the issue of an AME certificate
(a) Applicants for an AME certificate with the privileges for the initial issue, revalidation and renewal
of medical certificates shall;
(1) be fully qualified and licensed for the practice of medicine and hold a Certificate of
Completion of specialist training;
(2) have undertaken a basic training course in aviation medicine;
(3) demonstrate to the Authority that they:
(i) have adequate facilities, procedures, documentation and functioning equipment
suitable for aero-medical examinations; and
(ii) have in place the necessary procedures and conditions to ensure medical
confidentiality.
(4) have practical knowledge and experience of the conditions in which the holders of flight
crew licences and ratings carry out their duties.
(b) The competence of a medical examiner should be evaluated periodically by the medical assessor.
3.015 Requirements for the extension of privileges
Applicants for an AME certificate extending their privileges to the revalidation and renewal of Class 1
medical certificates shall hold a valid certificate as an AME and have:
(a) conducted at least 30 examinations for the issue, revalidation or renewal of Class 2 or Class 3
medical certificates over a period of no more than 5 years preceding the application;
(b) undertaken an advanced training course in aviation medicine; and
(c) undergone practical training at an AeMC or under supervision of the Authority.
3.020 Training courses in aviation medicine
(a) Training courses in aviation medicine shall be approved by the State where the organisation
providing it has its principal place of business. The organisation providing the course shall
demonstrate that the course syllabus is adequate and that the persons in charge of providing the
training have adequate knowledge and experience.
(b) Except in the case of refresher training, the courses shall be concluded by a written examination
on the subjects included in the course content.
(c) The organisation providing the course shall issue a certificate of completion to applicants when
they have obtained a pass in the examination.
3.025 Changes to the AME certificate
(a) AMEs shall notify the Authority of the following changes which could affect their certificate:
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(1) the AME is subject to disciplinary proceedings or investigation by a medical regulatory
body;
(2) there are any changes to the conditions on which the certificate was granted, including the
content of the statements provided with the application;
(3) the requirements for the issue are no longer met;
(4) there is a change of aero-medical examiner’s practice location(s) or correspondence
address.
(b) Failure to inform the Authority shall result in the suspension or revocation of the privileges of the
certificate, on the basis of the decision of the Authority that suspends or revokes the certificate.
3.030 Validity of AME certificates
An AME certificate shall be issued for a period not exceeding 3 years. It shall be revalidated subject to
the holder:
(a) continuing to fulfil the general conditions required for medical practice and maintaining
registration as a medical practitioner according to national law;
(b) undertaking refresher training in aviation medicine within the last 3 years;
(c) having performed at least 10 aero-medical examinations every year;
(d) remaining in compliance with the terms of the AME certificate; and
(e) exercising the AME privileges in accordance with these regulations.
3.035 Health promotion
The Authority, in cooperation with AMEs, shall implement appropriate aviation-related health promotion
for licence holders subject to a Medical Assessment to reduce future medical risks to flight safety.
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CAR MED
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SECTION 2 ACCEPTABLE MEANS OF COMPLIANCE & GUIDANCE MATERIAL
1 GENERAL
1.1 This Section contains Acceptable Means of Compliance (AMC) and Guidance Material (GM) that has been
agreed for inclusion in CAR MED.
1.2 Where a particular paragraph does not have an Acceptable Means of Compliance, it is considered that no
supplementary material is required.
1.3 A numbering system has been used in which the Acceptable Means of Compliance or Guidance Material
uses the same number as the paragraph to which it refers. The number is introduced by the letters AMC or
GM to distinguish the material from the regulation itself.
1.4 The acronyms AMC and GM also indicate the nature of the material and for this purpose the types of
material are defined as follows:
Guidance Material (GM) provides guidelines on a subject matter, such as how to comply with a regulation.
Acceptable Means of Compliance (AMC) illustrates a means, or several alternative means, but not
necessarily the only possible means by which a requirement can be met.
2 USE OF ALTERNATIVE MEANS OF COMPLIANCE (AMOC)
2.1 An operator/organisation/person may apply to use an alternative means of compliance (AMOC) instead of
an Acceptable Means of Compliance (AMC).
This means of compliance must, as a minimum, meet the safety intent of the specific regulation(s) to which
it refers. When applying to use an AMOC the applicant must define the elements of the means of
compliance from which he proposes to deviate and provide the rationale as to the manner in which it
demonstrates an equivalent level of safety and performance standard to the intent of the regulation. An
AMOC is subject to prior approval of the Authority.
2.2 An applicant must state the regulation to which the AMOC refers; outline the issue that the AMOC sets out
to address; state whether there is an AMC available on the same issue; state the exact wording of the
AMOC in the required format for an AMC; summarize the AMOC and describe how it demonstrates
compliance with the relevant regulation; provide details of risk assessments carried out and of internal
procedures; provide amendments to manuals and procedures necessary for the AMOC; provide any
additional information; and the application must be signed by the Focal Point within the organisation to
whom questions should be addressed.
2.3 The Authority will consider whether an AMOC demonstrates an acceptable means of compliance with the
regulation to which it refers, and will consider:
a. The technical quality of the proposal to demonstrate compliance with the intent of the relevant
regulation
b. The safety risk attached to the proposal
c. The applicants’ record of compliance
d. Industry best practice
2.4 When the Authority has approved an AMOC for use by a regulated person or organisation, it will be
published with basic identifying information only, in order to protect any commercially sensitive information.
Full details may be sought from the originator of the AMOC, although it should be noted that they are not
obliged to provide them. If at any time the Authority, in the course of an audit or inspection, makes a finding
against the AMOC, then approval may be withdrawn.
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CAR MED CHAPTER 1
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CHAPTER 1
GENERAL REQUIREMENTS
Section 1
General
AMC 1.030 Medical confidentiality
To ensure medical confidentiality, all medical reports and records should be securely held with accessibility
restricted to personnel authorised by the medical assessor.
AMC 1.035 Decrease in medical fitness
If in any doubt about their fitness to fly, use of medication or treatment:
(a) holders of class 1 or class 2 medical certificates should seek the advice of an AeMC or AME;
(b) holders of Class 3 medical certificates should seek the advice of an AeMC or AME, or of the GMP who
issued the holder’s medical certificate;
(c) suspension of exercise of privileges: holders of a medical certificate should seek the advice of an AeMC or
AME when they have been suffering from any illness involving incapacity to function as a member of the
flight crew for a period of at least 21 days.
AMC 1.045 Obligations of AeMC or AME
(a) The report required in 1.025 (b)(4) should detail the results of the examination and the evaluation of the
findings with regard to medical fitness.
(b) The report may be submitted in electronic format, but adequate identification of the examiner should be
ensured.
(c) If the medical examination is carried out by two or more AMEs s, only one of them should be responsible
for coordinating the results of the examination, evaluating the findings with regard to medical fitness, and
signing the report.
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Section 2
Requirements for medical certificates
AMC 1.060 Medical certificates
(a) A class 1 medical certificate includes the privileges and validities of class 2 and 3 medical certificates.
AMC 1.065 Application for a medical certificate
Except for initial applicants, when applicants do not present a current or previous medical certificate to the AeMC or
AME prior to the relevant examinations, the AeMC or AME should not issue the medical certificate unless relevant
information is received from the Authority.
AMC 1.075 Validity, revalidation and renewal of medical certificates
The validity period of a medical certificate (including any associated examination or special investigation) is
determined by the age of the applicant at the date of the medical examination.
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CHAPTER 2
SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR CLASS 1, CLASS 2 AND CLASS 3 MEDICAL CERTIFICATES
AMC for class 1, class 2 and class 3 medical certificates
Section 1
General
AMC 2.001(c)(1-3) Limitations to class 1 and class 2 medical certificates
(a) An AeMC or AME may refer the decision on fitness of the applicant to the Authority in borderline cases or
where fitness is in doubt.
(b) In cases where a fit assessment can only be considered with a limitation, the AeMC or AME or the
Authority should evaluate the medical condition of the applicant in consultation with appropriate flight
operations personnel for Class 1 and Class 2 medical certificates and other experts, if necessary.
(c) Limitation codes (Class 1 and Class 2 flight crew only)
Code
Limitation
1
TML
restriction of the period of validity of the medical certificate
2
VDL
correction for defective distant vision
3
VML
correction for defective distant, intermediate and near vision
4
VNL
correction for defective near vision
5
CCL
correction by means of contact lenses only
6
VCL
valid by day only
7
HAL
valid only when hearing aids are worn
8
APL
valid only with approved prosthesis
9
OCL
valid only as co-pilot
10
OPL
valid only without passengers (PPL only)
11
SSL
special restriction as specified
12
OAL
restricted to demonstrated aircraft type
13
AHL
valid only with approved hand controls
14
SIC
specific regular medical examination(s) - contact Authority
15
RXO
specialist ophthalmological examinations
16
OSA
obstructive sleep apnea
(d) Entry of limitations
(1) Limitations 1 to 4 may be imposed by an AME or an AeMC.
(2) Limitations 5 to 15 should only be imposed:
(i) for class 1 medical certificates by the Authority;
(ii) for class 2 medical certificates by the AME or AeMC in consultation with the Authority;
(e) Removal of limitations
(1) For class 1 medical certificates, all limitations should only be removed by the Authority.
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(2) For class 2 medical certificates, limitations may be removed by the Authority or by an AeMC or
AME in consultation with the Authority.
TML Time limitation
The period of validity of the medical certificate is limited to the duration as shown on the medical certificate.
This period of validity commences on the date of the medical examination. Any period of validity remaining
on the previous medical certificate is no longer valid. The pilot should present him/herself for re-
examination when advised and should follow any medical recommendations.
VDL Wear corrective lenses and carry a spare set of spectacles
Correction for defective distant vision: whilst exercising the privileges of the licence, the pilot should wear
spectacles or contact lenses that correct for defective distant vision as examined and approved by the
AME. Contact lenses may not be worn until cleared to do so by the AME. If contact lenses are worn, a
spare set of spectacles, approved by the AME, should be carried.
VML Wear multifocal spectacles and carry a spare set of spectacles
Correction for defective distant, intermediate and near vision: whilst exercising the privileges of the licence,
the pilot should wear spectacles that correct for defective distant, intermediate and near vision as examined
and approved by the AME. Contact lenses or full frame spectacles, when either correct for near vision only,
may not be worn.
VNL Have available corrective spectacles and carry a spare set of spectacles
Correction for defective near vision: whilst exercising the privileges of the licence, the pilot should have
readily available spectacles that correct for defective near vision as examined and approved by the AME.
Contact lenses or full frame spectacles, when either correct for near vision only, may not be worn.
VCL Valid by day only
The limitation allows private pilots with varying degrees of colour deficiency to exercise the privileges of
their licence by daytime only. Applicable to class 2 medical certificates only.
OML Valid only as or with qualified co-pilot
This applies to crew members who do not meet the medical requirements for single crew operations, but
are fit for multi-crew operations. Applicable to class 1 medical certificates only.
OCL Valid only as co-pilot
This limitation is a further extension of the OML limitation and is applied when, for some well-defined
medical reason, the pilot is assessed as safe to operate in a co-pilot role but not in command. Applicable to
class 1 medical certificates only.
OPL Valid only without passengers
This limitation may be considered when a pilot with a musculoskeletal problem, or some other medical
condition, may involve an increased element of risk to flight safety which might be acceptable to the pilot
but which is not acceptable for the carriage of passengers. Applicable to class 2 medical certificates only.
OSL Valid only with safety pilot and in aircraft with dual controls
The safety pilot is qualified as PIC on the class/type of aircraft and rated for the flight conditions. He/she
occupies a control seat, is aware of the type(s) of possible incapacity that the pilot whose medical
certificate has been issued with this limitation may suffer and is prepared to take over the aircraft controls
during flight. Applicable to class 2 medical certificates only.
OAL Restricted to demonstrated aircraft type
This limitation may apply to a pilot who has a limb deficiency or some other anatomical problem which had
been shown by a medical flight test or flight simulator testing to be acceptable but to require a restriction to
a specific type of aircraft.
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SIC Specific regular medical examination(s) contact Authority
This limitation requires the AME to contact the Authority before embarking upon renewal or recertification
medical assessment. It is likely to concern a medical history of which the AME should be aware prior to
undertaking the assessment.
RXO Specialist ophthalmological examinations
Specialist ophthalmological examinations are required for a significant reason. The limitation may be
applied by an AME but should only be removed by the Authority.
OSA Obstructive sleep apnea
The limitation may be applied by an AME for any person with a BMI > 35 if sleep apnea may be indicated.
This limitation requires the AME to discuss with the applicant before embarking upon renewal or
recertification medical assessment and should only be removed by the AME.
AMC 2.001(c)(4) Limitations to cabin crew class 2 medical certificates
When assessing whether the holder of a cabin crew licence may be able to perform cabin crew duties safely if
complying with one or more limitations, the following possible limitations should be considered:
(a) a restriction to operate only in multi-cabin crew operations (MCL);
(b) a restriction to specified aircraft type(s) (OAL) or to a specified type of operation (OOL);
(c) a requirement to undergo the next aero-medical examination and/or assessment at an earlier date than
required by 3.005(b) (TML);
(d) a requirement to undergo specific regular medical examination(s) (SIC);
(e) a requirement for visual correction (CVL), or by means of corrective lenses only (CCL);
(f) a requirement to use hearing aids (HAL); and
(g) special restriction as specified (SSL).
AMC 2.001(c)(5) Limitations to class 3 medical certificates
(a) An AeMC or AME may refer the decision on fitness of the applicant to the Authority in borderline cases or
where fitness is in doubt.
(b) In cases where a fit assessment can only be considered with a limitation, the AeMC or AME or the
Authority should evaluate the medical condition of the applicant in consultation with the air navigation
service provider for Class 3 medical certificates and other experts, if necessary.
(c) Limitation codes.
Code
Limitation
TML
Restriction of the period of validity of the medical certificate
VDL
Wear correction for defective distant vision and carry spare set of spectacles
VXL
Correction for defective distant vision depending on the working environment
VML
Wear correction for defective distant, intermediate and near vision and carry spare
set of spectacles
VNL
Have correction available for defective near vision and carry spare set of spectacles
VXN
Correction for defective near vision; correction for defective distant vision depending
on the working environment
RXO
Specialist ophthalmological examinations
CCL
Correction by means of contact lenses
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HAL
Valid only when hearing aids are worn
SIC
Specific medical examination(s)
SSL
Special restrictions as specified
OSA
Obstructive sleep apnea
(d) The abbreviations for the limitation codes should be explained to the holder of a medical certificate as
follows:
TML Time limitation
The period of validity of the medical certificate is limited to the duration as shown on the medical
certificate. This period of validity commences on the date of the aero-medical examination. Any period of
validity remaining on the previous medical certificate is no longer valid. The holder of a medical
certificate should present him/herself for reassessment or examination when advised and should follow
any medical recommendations.
VDL Wear corrective lenses and carry a spare set of spectacles
Correction for defective distant vision: whilst exercising the privileges of the licence, the holder of a
medical certificate should wear spectacles or contact lenses that correct for defective distant vision as
examined and approved by the AeMC or AME. Contact lenses may not be worn until cleared to do so by
an AeMC or AME. A spare set of spectacles, approved by the AeMC or AME, should be readily
available.
VXL Correction for defective distant vision depending on the working environment
Correction for defective distant vision does not have to be worn if the air traffic controller’s visual working
environment is in the area of up to 100 cm. Applicants who do not meet the uncorrected distant visual
acuity requirement but meet the visual acuity requirement for intermediate and near vision without
correction and whose visual working environment is only the intermediate and near vision area (up to
100 cm) may work without corrective lenses.
VML Wear multifocal spectacles and carry a spare set of spectacles
Correction for defective distant, intermediate and near vision: whilst exercising the privileges of the
licence, the holder of a medical certificate should wear spectacles that correct for defective distant,
intermediate and near vision as examined and approved by the AeMC or AME. Contact lenses or full-
frame spectacles, when either correct for near vision only, may not be worn.
VNL Have available corrective spectacles and a spare set of spectacles
Correction for defective near vision: whilst exercising the privileges of the licence, the holder of a
medical certificate should have readily available spectacles that correct for defective near vision as
examined and approved by the AeMC or AME. Contact lenses or full-frame spectacles, when either
correct for near vision only, may not be worn.
VXN Have available corrective spectacles and a spare set of spectacles; correction for
defective distant vision depending on the working environment.
Correction for defective distant vision does not have to be worn if the air traffic controller’s visual working
environment is in the area of up to 100 cm. Applicants who do not meet the uncorrected distant and
uncorrected near visual acuity requirements, but meet the visual acuity requirement for intermediate
vision without correction and whose visual working environment is only the intermediate and near vision
area (up to 100 cm) should have readily available spectacles and a spare set that correct for defective
near vision as examined and approved by the AeMC or AME. Contact lenses or full-frame spectacles,
when either correct for near vision only, may not be worn.
CCL Wear contact lenses that correct for defective vision
Correction for defective distant vision: whilst exercising the privileges of the licence, the holder of a
medical certificate should wear contact lenses that correct for defective distant vision, as examined and
approved by the AeMC or AME. A spare set of similarly correcting spectacles shall be readily available
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for immediate use whilst exercising the privileges of the licence.
RXO Specialist ophthalmological examination(s)
Specialist ophthalmological examination(s), other than the examinations stipulated, are required for a
significant reason.
HAL Hearing aid(s)
Whilst exercising the privileges of the licence, the holder of the medical certificate should use hearing
aid(s) that compensate(s) for defective hearing as examined and approved by the AeMC or AME. A
spare set of batteries should be available.
SIC Specific medical examination(s)
This limitation requires the AeMC or AME to contact the licensing authority before embarking upon
renewal or revalidation aero-medical assessment. It is likely to concern a medical history of which the
AME should be aware prior to undertaking the aero-medical assessment.
SSL Special restrictions as specified
This limitation may be considered when an individually specified limitation, not defined in this paragraph,
is appropriate to mitigate an increased level of risk to the safe exercise of the privileges of the licence.
The description of the SSL should be entered on the medical certificate or in a separate document to be
carried with the medical certificate.
OSA Obstructive sleep apnea
The limitation may be applied by an AME for any person with a BMI > 35 if sleep apnea may be indicated.
This limitation requires the AME to discuss with the applicant before embarking upon renewal or
recertification medical assessment and should only be removed by the AME.
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Section 2
Specific requirements for class 1 medical certificates
AMC1 2.010 Cardiovascular system
(a) Examination
Exercise electrocardiography
An exercise ECG when required as part of a cardiovascular assessment should be symptom limited and
completed to a minimum of Bruce Stage IV or equivalent.
(b) General
(1) Cardiovascular risk factor assessment
(i) Serum lipid estimation is case finding and significant abnormalities should require review,
investigation and supervision by the AeMC or AME in consultation with the Authority.
(ii) An accumulation of risk factors (smoking, family history, lipid abnormalities, hypertension,
etc.) should require cardiovascular evaluation by the AeMC or AME in consultation with the
Authority.
(2) Cardiovascular assessment
(i) Reporting of resting and exercise electrocardiograms should be by the AME or an
accredited specialist.
(ii) The extended cardiovascular assessment should be undertaken at an AeMC or may be
delegated to a cardiologist.
(c) Peripheral arterial disease
If there is no significant functional impairment, a fit assessment may be considered by the Authority,
provided:
(1) applicants without symptoms of coronary artery disease have reduced any vascular risk factors to
an appropriate level;
(2) applicants should be on acceptable secondary prevention treatment;
(3) exercise electrocardiography is satisfactory. Further tests may be required which should show no
evidence of myocardial ischaemia or significant coronary artery stenosis.
(d) Aortic aneurysm
(1) Applicants with an aneurysm of the infra-renal abdominal aorta may be assessed as fit with a multi-
pilot limitation by the Authority. Follow-up by ultra-sound scans or other imaging techniques, as
necessary, should be determined by the Authority.
(2) Applicants may be assessed as fit by the Authority after surgery for an infra-renal aortic aneurysm
with a multi-pilot limitation at revalidation if the blood pressure and cardiovascular assessment are
satisfactory. Regular cardiological review should be required.
(e) Cardiac valvular abnormalities
(1) Applicants with previously unrecognised cardiac murmurs should undergo evaluation by a
cardiologist and assessment by the Authority. If considered significant, further investigation should
include at least 2D Doppler echocardiography or equivalent imaging.
(2) Applicants with minor cardiac valvular abnormalities may be assessed as fit by the Authority.
Applicants with significant abnormality of any of the heart valves should be assessed as unfit.
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(3) Aortic valve disease
(i) Applicants with a bicuspid aortic valve may be assessed as fit if no other cardiacor aortic
abnormality is demonstrated. Follow-up with echocardiography, as necessary, should be
determined by the Authority.
(ii) Applicants with aortic stenosis require Authority review. Left ventricular function should be
intact. A history of systemic embolism or significant dilatation of the thoracic aorta is
disqualifying. Those with a mean pressure gradient of up to 20 mmHg may be assessed as
fit. Those with mean pressure gradient above 20 mmHg but not greater than 40 mmHg
may be assessed as fit with a multi-pilot limitation. A mean pressure gradient up to 50
mmHg may be acceptable. Follow-up with 2D Doppler echocardiography, as necessary,
should be determined by the Authority. Alternative measurement techniques with
equivalent ranges may be used.
(iii) Applicants with trivial aortic regurgitation may be assessed as fit. A greater degree of aortic
regurgitation should require a multi-pilot limitation. There should be no demonstrable
abnormality of the ascending aorta on 2D Doppler echocardiography. Follow-up, as
necessary, should be determined by the Authority.
(4) Mitral valve disease
(i) Asymptomatic applicants with an isolated mid-systolic click due to mitral leaflet prolapse
may be assessed as fit.
(ii) Applicants with rheumatic mitral stenosis should normally be assessed as unfit.
(iii) Applicants with uncomplicated minor regurgitation may be assessed as fit. Periodic
cardiolological review should be determined by the Authority.
(iv) Applicants with uncomplicated moderate mitral regurgitation may be considered as fit with
a multi-pilot limitation if the 2D Doppler echocardiogram demonstrates satisfactory left
ventricular dimensions and satisfactory myocardial function is confirmed by exercise
electrocardiography. Periodic cardiological review should be required, as determined by
the Authority.
(v) Applicants with evidence of volume overloading of the left ventricle demonstrated by
increased left ventricular end-diastolic diameter or evidence of systolic impairment should
be assessed as unfit.
(f) Valvular surgery
Applicants with cardiac valve replacement/repair should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be
considered by the Authority.
(1) Aortic valvotomy should be disqualifying.
(2) Mitral leaflet repair for prolapse is compatible with a fit assessment, provided post- operative
investigations reveal satisfactory left ventricular function without systolic or diastolic dilation and no
more than minor mitral regurgitation.
(3) Asymptomatic applicants with a tissue valve or with a mechanical valve who, at least 6 months
following surgery, are taking no cardioactive medication may be considered for a fit assessment
with a multi-pilot limitation by the Authority. Investigations which demonstrate normal valvular and
ventricular configuration and function should have been completed as demonstrated by:
(i) a satisfactory symptom limited exercise ECG. Myocardial perfusion imaging/stress
echocardiography should be required if the exercise ECG is abnormal or any coronary
artery disease has been demonstrated;
(ii) a 2D Doppler echocardiogram showing no significant selective chamber enlargement, a
tissue valve with minimal structural alteration and a normal Doppler blood flow, and no
structural or functional abnormality of the other heart valves. Left ventricular fractional
shortening should be normal.
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Follow-up with exercise ECG and 2D echocardiography, as necessary, should be
determined by the Authority.
(4) Where anticoagulation is needed after valvular surgery, a fit assessment with a multi-pilot limitation
may be considered after review by the Authority. The review should show that the anticoagulation
is stable. Anticoagulation should be considered stable if, within the last 6 months, at least 5 INR
values are documented, of which at least 4 are within the INR target range.
(g) Thromboembolic disorders
Arterial or venous thrombosis or pulmonary embolism are disqualifying whilst anticoagulation is being used
as treatment. After 6 months of stable anticoagulation as prophylaxis, a fit assessment with multi-pilot
limitation may be considered after review by the Authority. Anticoagulation should be considered stable if,
within the last 6 months, at least 5 INR values are documented, of which at least 4 are within the INR target
range. Pulmonary embolus should require full evaluation. Following cessation of anti-coagulant therapy, for
any indication, applicants should require review by the Authority.
(h) Other cardiac disorders
(1) Applicants with a primary or secondary abnormality of the pericardium, myocardium or
endocardium should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered by the Authority
following complete resolution and satisfactory cardiological evaluation which may include 2D
Doppler echocardiography, exercise ECG and/or myocardial perfusion imaging/stress
echocardiography and 24-hour ambulatory ECG. Coronary angiography may be indicated.
Frequent review and a multi-pilot limitation may be required after fit assessment.
(2) Applicants with a congenital abnormality of the heart, including those who have undergone surgical
correction, should be assessed as unfit. Applicants with minor abnormalities that are functionally
unimportant may be assessed as fit by the Authority following cardiological assessment. No
cardioactive medication is acceptable. Investigations may include 2D Doppler echocardiography,
exercise ECG and 24-hour ambulatory ECG. Regular cardiological review should be required.
(i) Syncope
(1) Applicants with a history of recurrent vasovagal syncope should be assessed as unfit. A fit
assessment may be considered by the Authority after a 6-month period without recurrence
provided cardiological evaluation is satisfactory. Such evaluation should include:
(i) a satisfactory symptom limited 12 lead exercise ECG to Bruce Stage IV or equivalent. If the
exercise ECG is abnormal, myocardial perfusion imaging/stress echocardiography should
be required;
(ii) a 2D Doppler echocardiogram showing neither significant selective chamber enlargement
nor structural or functional abnormality of the heart, valves or myocardium;
(iii) a 24-hour ambulatory ECG recording showing no conduction disturbance, complex or
sustained rhythm disturbance or evidence of myocardial ischaemia.
(2) A tilt test carried out to a standard protocol showing no evidence of vasomotor instability may be
required.
(3) Neurological review should be required.
(4) A multi-pilot limitation should be required until a period of 5 years has elapsed without recurrence.
The Authority may determine a shorter or longer period of multi-pilot limitation according to the
individual circumstances of the case.
(5) Applicants who experienced loss of consciousness without significant warning should be assessed
as unfit.
(j) Blood pressure
(1) The diagnosis of hypertension should require cardiovascular review to include potential vascular
risk factors.
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(2) Anti-hypertensive treatment should be agreed by the Authority. Acceptable medication may
include:
(i) non-loop diuretic agents;
(ii) ACE inhibitors;
(iii) angiotensin II/AT1 blocking agents (sartans);
(iv) slow channel calcium blocking agents;
(v) certain (generally hydrophilic) beta-blocking agents.
(3) Following initiation of medication for the control of blood pressure, applicants should be re-
assessed to verify that the treatment is compatible with the safe exercise of the privileges of the
licence held.
(k) Coronary artery disease
(1) Chest pain of uncertain cause should require full investigation.
(2) In suspected asymptomatic coronary artery disease, exercise electrocardiography should be
required. Further tests may be required, which should show no evidence of myocardial ischaemia
or significant coronary artery stenosis.
(3) Evidence of exercise-induced myocardial ischaemia should be disqualifying.
(4) After an ischaemic cardiac event, including revascularisation, applicants without symptoms should
have reduced any vascular risk factors to an appropriate level. Medication, when used to control
cardiac symptoms, is not acceptable. All applicants should be on acceptable secondary prevention
treatment.
(i) A coronary angiogram obtained around the time of, or during, the ischaemic myocardial
event and a complete, detailed clinical report of the ischaemic event and of any operative
procedures should be available to the Authority:
(A) there should be no stenosis more than 50 % in any major untreated vessel, in any
vein or artery graft or at the site of an angioplasty/stent, except in a vessel
subtending a myocardial infarction. More than two stenoses between 30 % and 50
% within the vascular tree should not be acceptable;
(B) the whole coronary vascular tree should be assessed as satisfactory by a
cardiologist, and particular attention should be paid to multiple stenoses and/or
multiple revascularisations;
(C) an untreated stenosis greater than 30 % in the left main or proximal left anterior
descending coronary artery should not be acceptable.
(ii) At least 6 months from the ischaemic myocardial event, including revascularisation, the
following investigations should be completed (equivalent tests may be substituted):
(A) an exercise ECG showing neither evidence of myocardial ischaemia nor rhythm or
conduction disturbance;
(B) an echocardiogram showing satisfactory left ventricular function with no important
abnormality of wall motion (such as dyskinesia or akinesia) and a left ventricular
ejection fraction of 50 % or more;
(C) in cases of angioplasty/stenting, a myocardial perfusion scan or stress
echocardiogram, which should show no evidence of reversible myocardial
ischaemia. If there is any doubt about myocardial perfusion in other cases
(infarction or bypass grafting) a perfusion scan should also be required;
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(D) further investigations, such as a 24-hour ECG, may be necessary to assess the
risk of any significant rhythm disturbance.
(iii) Follow-up should be annually (or more frequently, if necessary) to ensure that there is no
deterioration of the cardiovascular status. It should include a review by a cardiologist,
exercise ECG and cardiovascular risk assessment. Additional investigations may be
required by the Authority.
(A) After coronary artery vein bypass grafting, a myocardial perfusion scan or
equivalent test should be performed if there is any indication, and in all cases
within 5 years from the procedure.
(B) In all cases, coronary angiography should be considered at any time if symptoms,
signs or non-invasive tests indicate myocardial ischaemia.
(iv) Successful completion of the 6-month or subsequent review will allow a fit assessment with
a multi-pilot limitation.
(l) Rhythm and conduction disturbances
(1) Any significant rhythm or conduction disturbance should require evaluation by a cardiologist and
appropriate follow-up in the case of a fit assessment. Such evaluation should include:
(i) exercise ECG to the Bruce protocol or equivalent. Bruce stage 4 should be achieved and
no significant abnormality of rhythm or conduction, or evidence of myocardial ischaemia
should be demonstrated. Withdrawal of cardioactive medication prior to the test should
normally be required;
(ii) 24-hour ambulatory ECG which should demonstrate no significant rhythm or conduction
disturbance;
(iii) 2D Doppler echocardiogram which should show no significant selective chamber
enlargement or significant structural or functional abnormality, and a left ventricular ejection
fraction of at least 50 %.
Further evaluation may include (equivalent tests may be substituted):
(iv) 24-hour ECG recording repeated as necessary;
(v) electrophysiological study;
(vi) myocardial perfusion imaging;
(vii) cardiac magnetic resonance imaging (MRI);
(viii) coronary angiogram.
(2) Applicants with frequent or complex forms of supra ventricular or ventricular ectopic complexes
require full cardiological evaluation.
(3) Ablation
Applicants who have undergone ablation therapy should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment
may be considered by the Authority following successful catheter ablation and should require a
multi-pilot limitation for at least one year, unless an electrophysiological study, undertaken at a
minimum of 2 months after the ablation, demonstrates satisfactory results. For those whose long-
term outcome cannot be assured by invasive or non-invasive testing, an additional period with a
multi-pilot limitation and/or observation may be necessary.
(4) Supraventricular arrhythmias
Applicants with significant disturbance of supraventricular rhythm, including sinoatrial dysfunction,
whether intermittent or established, should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be
considered by the Authority if cardiological evaluation is satisfactory.
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(i) Atrial fibrillation/flutter
(A) For initial applicants, a fit assessment should be limited to those with a single
episode of arrhythmia which is considered by the Authority to be unlikely to recur.
(B) For revalidation, applicants may be assessed as fit if cardiological evaluation is
satisfactory.
(ii) Applicants with asymptomatic sinus pauses up to 2.5 seconds on resting
electrocardiography may be assessed as fit if exercise electrocardiography,
echocardiography and 24-hour ambulatory ECG are satisfactory.
(iii) Symptomatic sino-atrial disease should be disqualifying.
(5) Mobitz type 2 atrio-ventricular block
Applicants with Mobitz type 2 AV block should require full cardiological evaluation and may be
assessed as fit in the absence of distal conducting tissue disease.
(6) Complete right bundle branch block
Applicants with complete right bundle branch block should require cardiological evaluation on first
presentation and subsequently:
(i) for initial applicants under age 40, a fit assessment may be considered by the Authority.
Initial applicants over age 40 should demonstrate a period of stability of 12 months;
(ii) for revalidation, a fit assessment may be considered if the applicant is under age 40. A
multi-pilot limitation should be applied for 12 months for those over age 40.
(7) Complete left bundle branch block
A fit assessment may be considered by the Authority:
(i) Initial applicants should demonstrate a 3-year period of stability.
(ii) For revalidation, after a 3-year period with a multi-pilot limitation applied, a fit assessment
without multi-pilot limitation may be considered.
(iii) Investigation of the coronary arteries is necessary for applicants over age 40.
(8) Ventricular pre-excitation
A fit assessment may be considered by the Authority:
(i) Asymptomatic initial applicants with pre-excitation may be assessed as fit if an
electrophysiological study, including adequate drug-induced autonomic stimulation reveals
no inducible re-entry tachycardia and the existence of multiple pathways is excluded.
(ii) Asymptomatic applicants with pre-excitation may be assessed as fit at revalidation with a
multi-pilot limitation.
(9) Pacemaker
Applicants with a subendocardial pacemaker should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be
considered at revalidation by the Authority no sooner than 3 months after insertion and should
require:
(i) no other disqualifying condition;
(ii) a bipolar lead system, programmed in bipolar mode without automatic mode change of the
device;
(iii) that the applicant is not pacemaker dependent;
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(iv) regular follow-up, including a pacemaker check; and
(v) a multi-pilot limitation.
(10) QT prolongation
Prolongation of the QT interval on the ECG associated with symptoms should be disqualifying.
Asymptomatic applicants require cardiological evaluation for a fit assessment and a multi-pilot
limitation may be required.
AMC1 2.015 Respiratory system
(a) Examination
(1) Spirometry
Spirometric examination is required for initial examination. An FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70 % at
initial examination should require evaluation by a specialist in respiratory disease.
(2) Chest radiography
Posterior/anterior chest radiography may be required at initial, revalidation or renewal examinations
when indicated on clinical or epidemiological grounds.
(b) Chronic obstructive airways disease
Applicants with chronic obstructive airways disease should be assessed as unfit. Applicants with only minor
impairment of their pulmonary function may be assessed as fit.
(c) Asthma
Applicants with asthma requiring medication or experiencing recurrent attacks of asthma may be assessed
as fit if the asthma is considered stable with satisfactory pulmonary function tests and medication is
compatible with flight safety. Systemic steroids are disqualifying.
(d) Inflammatory disease
For applicants with active inflammatory disease of the respiratory system a fit assessment may be
considered when the condition has resolved without sequelae and no medication is required.
(e) Sarcoidosis
(1) Applicants with active sarcoidosis should be assessed as unfit. Investigation should be undertaken
with respect to the possibility of systemic, particularly cardiac, involvement. A fit assessment may
be considered if no medication is required, and the disease is investigated and shown to be limited
to hilar lymphadenopathy and inactive.
(2) Applicants with cardiac sarcoid should be assessed as unfit.
(f) Pneumothorax
(1) Applicants with a spontaneous pneumothorax should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may
be considered if respiratory evaluation is satisfactory:
(i) 1 year following full recovery from a single spontaneous pneumothorax;
(ii) at revalidation, 6 weeks following full recovery from a single spontaneous pneumothorax,
with a multi-pilot limitation;
(iii) following surgical intervention in the case of a recurrent pneumothorax provided there is
satisfactory recovery.
(2) A recurrent spontaneous pneumothorax that has not been surgically treated is disqualifying.
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(3) A fit assessment following full recovery from a traumatic pneumothorax as a result of an accident or
injury may be acceptable once full absorption of the pneumothorax is demonstrated.
(g) Thoracic surgery
(1) Applicants requiring major thoracic surgery should be assessed as unfit for a minimum of 3 months
following operation or until such time as the effects of the operation are no longer likely to interfere
with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
(2) A fit assessment following lesser chest surgery may be considered by the Authority after
satisfactory recovery and full respiratory evaluation.
(h) Sleep apnoea syndrome/sleep disorder
Applicants with unsatisfactorily treated sleep apnoea syndrome should be assessed as unfit.
AMC1 2.020 Digestive system
(a) Oesophageal varices
Applicants with oesophageal varices should be assessed as unfit.
(b) Pancreatitis
Applicants with pancreatitis should be assessed as unfit pending assessment. A fit assessment may be
considered if the cause (e.g. gallstone, other obstruction, medication) is removed.
(c) Gallstones
(1) Applicants with a single asymptomatic large gallstone discovered incidentally may be assessed as
fit if not likely to cause incapacitation in flight.
(2) An applicant with asymptomatic multiple gallstones may be assessed as fit with a multi-pilot
limitation.
(d) Inflammatory bowel disease
Applicants with an established diagnosis or history of chronic inflammatory bowel disease should be
assessed as fit if the inflammatory bowel disease is in established remission and stable and that systemic
steroids are not required for its control.
(e) Peptic ulceration
Applicants with peptic ulceration should be assessed as unfit pending full recovery and demonstrated
healing.
(f) Abdominal surgery
(1) Abdominal surgery is disqualifying for a minimum of 3 months. An earlier fit assessment may be
considered if recovery is complete, the applicant is asymptomatic and there is only a minimal risk of
secondary complication or recurrence.
(2) Applicants who have undergone a surgical operation on the digestive tract or its adnexa, involving
a total or partial excision or a diversion of any of these organs, should be assessed as unfit for a
minimum period of 3 months or until such time as the effects of the operation are no longer likely to
interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
AMC1 2.025 Metabolic and endocrine systems
(a) Metabolic, nutritional or endocrine dysfunction
Applicants with metabolic, nutritional or endocrine dysfunction may be assessed as fit if the condition is
asymptomatic, clinically compensated and stable with or without replacement therapy, and regularly
reviewed by an appropriate specialist.
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(b) Obesity
Applicants with a Body Mass Index > 35 may be assessed as fit only if the excess weight is not likely to
interfere with the safe exercise of the applicable licence(s) and a satisfactory cardiovascular risk review has
been undertaken.
(c) Addison’s disease
Addison’s disease is disqualifying. A fit assessment may be considered, provided that cortisone is carried
and available for use whilst exercising the privileges of the licence(s). Applicants may be assessed as fit
with a multi-pilot limitation.
(d) Gout
Applicants with acute gout should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered once
asymptomatic, after cessation of treatment or the condition is stabilised on anti-hyperuricaemic therapy.
(e) Thyroid dysfunction
Applicants with hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be
considered when a stable euthyroid state is attained.
(f) Abnormal glucose metabolism
Glycosuria and abnormal blood glucose levels require investigation. A fit assessment may be considered if
normal glucose tolerance is demonstrated (low renal threshold) or impaired glucose tolerance without
diabetic pathology is fully controlled by diet and regularly reviewed.
(g) Diabetes mellitus
Subject to good control of blood sugar with no hypoglycaemic episodes:
(1) applicants with diabetes mellitus not requiring medication may be assessed as fit;
(2) the use of antidiabetic medications that are not likely to cause hypoglycaemia may be acceptable
for a fit assessment with a multi-pilot limitation.
AMC1 2.030 Haematology
(a) Abnormal haemoglobin
Applicants with abnormal haemoglobin should be investigated.
(b) Anaemia
(1) Applicants with anaemia demonstrated by a reduced haemoglobin level or haematocrit less than 32
% should be assessed as unfit and require investigation. A fit assessment may be considered in
cases where the primary cause has been treated (e.g. iron or B12 deficiency) and the haemoglobin
or haematocrit has stabilised at a satisfactory level.
(2) Anaemia which is unamenable to treatment is disqualifying.
(c) Polycythaemia
Applicants with polycythaemia should be assessed as unfit and require investigation. A fit assessment with
a multi-pilot limitation may be considered if the condition is stable and no associated pathology is
demonstrated.
(d) Haemoglobinopathy
(1) Applicants with a haemoglobinopathy should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be
considered where minor thalassaemia or other haemoglobinopathy is diagnosed without a history
of crises and where full functional capability is demonstrated. The haemoglobin level should be
satisfactory.
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(2) Applicants with sickle cell disease should be assessed as unfit.
(e) Coagulation disorders
Applicants with a coagulation disorder should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered if
there is no history of significant bleeding episodes.
(f) Haemorrhagic disorders
Applicants with a haemorrhagic disorder require investigation. A fit assessment with a multi-pilot limitation
may be considered if there is no history of significant bleeding.
(g) Thrombo-embolic disorders
(1) Applicants with a thrombotic disorder require investigation. A fit assessment with a multi-pilot
limitation may be considered if there is no history of significant clotting episodes.
(2) An arterial embolus is disqualifying.
(h) Disorders of the lymphatic system
Applicants with significant localised and generalised enlargement of the lymphatic glands and diseases of
the blood should be assessed as unfit and require investigation. A fit assessment may be considered in
cases of an acute infectious process which is fully recovered or Hodgkin’s lymphoma or other lymphoid
malignancy which has been treated and is in full remission.
(i) Leukaemia
(1) Applicants with acute leukaemia should be assessed as unfit. Once in established remission,
applicants may be assessed as fit.
(2) Applicants with chronic leukaemia should be assessed as unfit. After a period of demonstrated
stability a fit assessment may be considered.
(3) Applicants with a history of leukaemia should have no history of central nervous system
involvement and no continuing side-effects from treatment of flight safety importance. Haemoglobin
and platelet levels should be satisfactory. Regular follow- up is required.
(j) Splenomegaly
Applicants with splenomegaly should be assessed as unfit and require investigation. A fit assessment may
be considered when the enlargement is minimal, stable and no associated pathology is demonstrated, or if
the enlargement is minimal and associated with another acceptable condition.
AMC1 2.035 Genitourinary system
(a) Abnormal urinalysis
Investigation is required if there is any abnormal finding on urinalysis.
(b) Renal disease
(1) Applicants presenting with any signs of renal disease should be assessed as unfit. A fit
assessment may be considered if blood pressure is satisfactory and renal function is acceptable.
(2) The requirement for dialysis is disqualifying.
(c) Urinary calculi
(1) Applicants with an asymptomatic calculus or a history of renal colic require investigation.
(2) Applicants presenting with one or more urinary calculi should be assessed as unfit and require
investigation.
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(3) A fit assessment with a multi-pilot limitation may be considered whilst awaiting assessment or
treatment.
(4) A fit assessment without multi-pilot limitation may be considered after successful treatment for a
calculus.
(5) With residual calculi, a fit assessment with a multi-pilot limitation may be considered.
(d) Renal/urological surgery
(1) Applicants who have undergone a major surgical operation on the urinary tract or the urinary
apparatus involving a total or partial excision or a diversion of any of its organs should be assessed
as unfit for a minimum period of 3 months or until such time as the effects of the operation are no
longer likely to cause incapacity in flight. After other urological surgery, a fit assessment may be
considered if the applicant is completely asymptomatic and there is minimal risk of secondary
complication or recurrence.
(2) An applicant with compensated nephrectomy without hypertension or uraemia may be considered
for a fit assessment.
(3) Applicants who have undergone renal transplantation may be considered for a fit assessment if it is
fully compensated and tolerated with only minimal immuno- suppressive therapy after at least 12
months. Applicants may be assessed as fit with a multi-pilot limitation.
(4) Applicants who have undergone total cystectomy may be considered for a fit assessment if there is
satisfactory urinary function, no infection and no recurrence of primary pathology. Applicants may
be assessed as fit with a multi-pilot limitation.
AMC1 2.040 Infectious disease
(a) Infectious disease General
In cases of infectious disease, consideration should be given to a history of, or clinical signs indicating,
underlying impairment of the immune system.
(b) Tuberculosis
Applicants with active tuberculosis should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered
following completion of therapy.
(c) Syphilis
Acute syphilis is disqualifying. A fit assessment may be considered in the case of those fully treated and
recovered from the primary and secondary stages.
(d) HIV infection
(1) HIV positivity is disqualifying. A fit assessment with a multi-pilot limitation may be considered for
individuals with stable, non-progressive disease. Frequent review is required.
(2) The occurrence of AIDS or AIDS-related complex is disqualifying.
(e) Infectious hepatitis
Infectious hepatitis is disqualifying. A fit assessment may be considered after full recovery.
AMC1 2.045 Obstetrics and gynaecology
(a) Gynaecological surgery
An applicant who has undergone a major gynaecological operation should be assessed as unfit for a period
of 3 months or until such time as the effects of the operation are not likely to interfere with the safe exercise
of the privileges of the licence(s) if the holder is completely asymptomatic and there is only a minimal risk of
secondary complication or recurrence.
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(b) Severe menstrual disturbances
An applicant with a history of severe menstrual disturbances unamenable to treatment should be assessed
as unfit.
(c) Pregnancy
(1) A pregnant licence holder may be assessed as fit with a multi-pilot limitation during the first 26
weeks of gestation, following review of the obstetric evaluation by the AeMC or AME who should
inform the Authority.
(2) The AeMC or AME should provide written advice to the applicant and the supervising physician
regarding potentially significant complications of pregnancy.
AMC1 2.050 Musculoskeletal system
(a) An applicant with any significant sequela from disease, injury or congenital abnormality affecting the bones,
joints, muscles or tendons with or without surgery requires full evaluation prior to a fit assessment.
(b) In cases of limb deficiency, a fit assessment may be considered following a satisfactory medical flight test
or simulator testing.
(c) An applicant with inflammatory, infiltrative, traumatic or degenerative disease of the musculoskeletal system
may be assessed as fit provided the condition is in remission and the applicant is taking no disqualifying
medication and has satisfactorily completed a medical flight or simulator flight test. A limitation to specified
aircraft type(s) may be required.
(d) Abnormal physique, including obesity, or muscular weakness may require medical flight or flight simulator
testing. Particular attention should be paid to emergency procedures and evacuation. A limitation to
specified aircraft type(s) may be required.
AMC1 2.055 Psychiatry
(a) Psychotic disorder
A history, or the occurrence, of a functional psychotic disorder is disqualifying unless a cause can be
unequivocally identified as one which is transient, has ceased and will not recur.
(b) Organic mental disorder
An organic mental disorder is disqualifying. Once the cause has been treated, an applicant may be
assessed as fit following satisfactory psychiatric review.
(c) Psychotropic substances
Use or abuse of psychotropic substances likely to affect flight safety is disqualifying.
(d) Schizophrenia, schizotypal or delusional disorder
Applicants with an established schizophrenia, schizotypal or delusional disorder should only be considered
for a fit assessment if the Authority concludes that the original diagnosis was inappropriate or inaccurate or,
in the case of a single episode of delirium, provided that the applicant has suffered no permanent
impairment.
(e) Mood disorder
An established mood disorder is disqualifying. After full recovery and after full consideration of an individual
case a fit assessment may be considered, depending on the characteristics and gravity of the mood
disorder. If a stable maintenance psychotropic medication is confirmed, a fit assessment should require a
multi-pilot limitation.
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(f) Neurotic, stress-related or somatoform disorder
Where there is suspicion or established evidence that an applicant has a neurotic, stress- related or
somatoform disorder, the applicant should be referred for psychiatric opinion and advice.
(g) Personality or behavioural disorder
Where there is suspicion or established evidence that an applicant has a personality or behavioural
disorder, the applicant should be referred for psychiatric opinion and advice.
(h) Disorders due to alcohol or other substance use
(1) Mental or behavioural disorders due to alcohol or other substance use, with or without dependency,
are disqualifying.
(2) A fit assessment may be considered after a period of two years documented sobriety or freedom
from substance use. At revalidation or renewal a fit assessment may be considered earlier with a
multi-pilot limitation. Depending on the individual case, treatment and review may include:
(i) in-patient treatment of some weeks followed by:
(A) review by a psychiatric specialist; and
(B) on-going review including blood testing and peer reports, which may be required
indefinitely.
(i) Deliberate self-harm
A single self-destructive action or repeated acts of deliberate self-harm are disqualifying. A fit assessment
may be considered after full consideration of an individual case and may require psychiatric or
psychological review. Neuropsychological assessment may also be required.
AMC1 2.060 Psychology
(a) Where there is suspicion or established evidence that an applicant has a psychological disorder, the
applicant should be referred for psychological opinion and advice.
(b) Established evidence should be verifiable information from an identifiable source which evokes doubts
concerning the mental fitness or personality of a particular individual. Sources for this information can be
accidents or incidents, problems in training or proficiency checks, delinquency or knowledge relevant to the
safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence.
(c) The psychological evaluation may include a collection of biographical data, the administration of aptitude as
well as personality tests and psychological interview.
(d) The psychologist should submit a written report to the AME, AeMC or Authority as appropriate, detailing
his/her opinion and recommendation.
AMC1 2.065 Neurology
(a) Epilepsy
(1) A diagnosis of epilepsy is disqualifying, unless there is unequivocal evidence of a syndrome of
benign childhood epilepsy associated with a very low risk of recurrence, and unless the applicant
has been free of recurrence and off treatment for more than 10 years. One or more convulsive
episodes after the age of 5 are disqualifying. In the case of an acute symptomatic seizure, which is
considered to have a very low risk of recurrence, a fit assessment may be considered after
neurological review.
(2) An applicant may be assessed as fit by the Authority with a multi-pilot limitation if:
(i) there is a history of a single afebrile epileptiform seizure;
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(ii) there has been no recurrence after at least 10 years off treatment; (iii) there is no evidence
of continuing predisposition to epilepsy.
(b) Conditions with a high propensity for cerebral dysfunction
An applicant with a condition with a high propensity for cerebral dysfunction should be assessed as unfit. A
fit assessment may be considered after full evaluation.
(c) Clinical EEG abnormalities
(1) Electroencephalography is required when indicated by the applicant’s history or on clinical grounds.
(2) Epileptiform paroxysmal EEG abnormalities and focal slow waves should be disqualifying.
(d) Neurological disease
Any stationary or progressive disease of the nervous system which has caused or is likely to cause a
significant disability is disqualifying. However, in case of minor functional losses associated with stationary
disease, a fit assessment may be considered after full evaluation.
(e) Episode of disturbance of consciousness
In the case of a single episode of disturbance of consciousness, which can be satisfactorily explained, a fit
assessment may be considered, but a recurrence should be disqualifying.
(f) Head injury
An applicant with a head injury which was severe enough to cause loss of consciousness or is associated
with penetrating brain injury should be reviewed by a consultant neurologist. A fit assessment may be
considered if there has been a full recovery and the risk of epilepsy is sufficiently low.
(g) Spinal or peripheral nerve injury, myopathies
An applicant with a history or diagnosis of spinal or peripheral nerve injury or myopathy should be assessed
as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered if neurological review and musculoskeletal assessments are
satisfactory.
AMC1 2.070 Visual system
(a) Eye examination
(1) At each aero-medical revalidation examination, an assessment of the visual fitness should be
undertaken and the eyes should be examined with regard to possible pathology.
(2) All abnormal and doubtful cases should be referred to an ophthalmologist. Conditions which
indicate ophthalmological examination include, but are not limited to, a substantial decrease in the
uncorrected visual acuity, any decrease in best corrected visual acuity and/or the occurrence of
eye disease, eye injury, or eye surgery.
(3) Where specialist ophthalmological examinations are required for any significant reason, this should
be imposed as a limitation on the medical certificate.
(b) Comprehensive eye examination
A comprehensive eye examination by an eye specialist is required at the initial examination. All abnormal
and doubtful cases should be referred to an ophthalmologist. The examination should include:
(1) history;
(2) visual acuities - near, intermediate and distant vision (uncorrected and with best optical correction if
needed);
(3) examination of the external eye, anatomy, media (slit lamp) and fundoscopy;
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(4) ocular motility;
(5) binocular vision;
(6) colour vision;
(7) visual fields;
(8) tonometry on clinical indication; and
(9) refraction hyperopic initial applicants with a hyperopia of more than +2 dioptres and under the age
of 25 should undergo objective refraction in cycloplegia.
(c) Routine eye examination
A routine eye examination may be performed by an AME and should include:
(1) history;
(2) visual acuities - near, intermediate and distant vision (uncorrected and with best optical correction if
needed);
(3) examination of the external eye, anatomy, media and fundoscopy;
(4) further examination on clinical indication.
(d) Refractive error
(1) At initial examination an applicant may be assessed as fit with:
(i) hypermetropia not exceeding +5.0 dioptres;
(ii) myopia not exceeding 6.0 dioptres;
(iii) astigmatism not exceeding 2.0 dioptres;
(iv) anisometropia not exceeding 2.0 dioptres provided that optimal correction has been
considered and no significant pathology is demonstrated.
(2) Initial applicants who do not meet the requirements in (1)(ii), (iii) and (iv) above should be referred
to the Authority. A fit assessment may be considered following review by an ophthalmologist.
(3) At revalidation an applicant may be assessed as fit with:
(i) hypermetropia not exceeding +5.0 dioptres;
(ii) myopia exceeding 6.0 dioptres;
(iii) astigmatism exceeding 2.0 dioptres;
(iv) anisometropia exceeding 2.0 dioptres
provided that optimal correction has been considered and no significant pathology is demonstrated.
(4) If anisometropia exceeds 3.0 dioptres, contact lenses should be worn.
(5) If the refractive error is +3.0 to +5.0 or 3.0 to 6.0 dioptres, there is astigmatism or anisometropia
of more than 2 dioptres but less than 3 dioptres, a review should be undertaken 5 yearly by an eye
specialist.
(6) If the refractive error is greater than 6.0 dioptres, there is more than 3.0 dioptres of astigmatism or
anisometropia exceeds 3.0 dioptres, a review should be undertaken 2 yearly by an eye specialist.
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(7) In cases (5) and (6) above, the applicant should supply the eye specialist’s report to the AME. The
report should be forwarded to the Authority as part of the medical examination report. All abnormal
and doubtful cases should be referred to an ophthalmologist.
(e) Uncorrected visual acuity
No limits apply to uncorrected visual acuity.
(f) Substandard vision
(1) Applicants with reduced central vision in one eye may be assessed as fit if the binocular visual field
is normal and the underlying pathology is acceptable according to ophthalmological assessment. A
satisfactory medical flight test and a multi-pilot limitation are required.
(2) An applicant with acquired substandard vision in one eye may be assessed as fit with a multi-pilot
limitation if:
(i) the better eye achieves distant visual acuity of 6/6 (1.0), corrected or uncorrected;
(ii) the better eye achieves intermediate visual acuity of N14 and N5 for near;
(iii) in the case of acute loss of vision in one eye, a period of adaptation time has passed from
the known point of visual loss, during which the applicant should be assessed as unfit;
(iv) there is no significant ocular pathology; and
(v) a medical flight test is satisfactory.
(3) An applicant with a visual field defect may be assessed as fit if the binocular visual field is normal
and the underlying pathology is acceptable to the Authority.
(g) Keratoconus
Applicants with keratoconus may be assessed as fit if the visual requirements are met with the use of
corrective lenses and periodic review is undertaken by an ophthalmologist.
(h) Heterophoria
Applicants with heterophoria (imbalance of the ocular muscles) exceeding:
(1) at 6 metres:
2.0 prism dioptres in hyperphoria,
10.0 prism dioptres in esophoria,
8.0 prism dioptres in exophoria and
(2) at 33 centimetres:
1.0 prism dioptre in hyperphoria,
8.0 prism dioptres in esophoria,
12.0 prism dioptres in exophoria
should be assessed as unfit. The applicant should be reviewed by an ophthalmologist and if the fusional
reserves are sufficient to prevent asthenopia and diplopia a fit assessment may be considered.
(i) Eye surgery
The assessment after eye surgery should include an ophthalmological examination.
(1) After refractive surgery, a fit assessment may be considered, provided that:
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(i) pre-operative refraction was not greater than +5 dioptres;
(ii) post-operative stability of refraction has been achieved (less than 0.75 dioptres variation
diurnally);
(iii) examination of the eye shows no post-operative complications;
(iv) glare sensitivity is within normal standards;
(v) mesopic contrast sensitivity is not impaired;
(vi) review is undertaken by an eye specialist.
(2) Cataract surgery entails unfitness. A fit assessment may be considered after 3 months.
(3) Retinal surgery entails unfitness. A fit assessment may be considered 6 months after successful
surgery. A fit assessment may be acceptable earlier after retinal laser therapy. Follow-up may be
required.
(4) Glaucoma surgery entails unfitness. A fit assessment may be considered 6 months after successful
surgery. Follow-up may be required.
(5) For (2), (3) and (4) above, a fit assessment may be considered earlier if recovery is complete.
(j) Correcting lenses
Correcting lenses should permit the licence holder to meet the visual requirements at all distances.
AMC1 2.075 Colour vision
(a) At revalidation, colour vision should be tested on clinical indication.
(b) The Ishihara test (24 plate version) is considered passed if the first 15 plates, presented in a random order,
are identified without error.
(c) Those failing the Ishihara test should be examined either by:
(1) anomaloscopy (Nagel or equivalent). This test is considered passed if the colour match is
trichromatic and the matching range is 4 scale units or less; or by
(2) lantern testing with a Spectrolux, Beynes or Holmes-Wright lantern. This test is considered passed
if the applicant passes without error a test with accepted lanterns.
AMC1 2.080 Otorhino-laryngology
(a) Hearing
(1) The applicant should understand correctly conversational speech when tested with each ear at a
distance of 2 metres from and with the applicant’s back turned towards the AME.
(2) The pure tone audiogram should cover the 500 Hz, 1 000 Hz, 2 000 Hz and 3 000 Hz frequency
thresholds.
(3) An applicant with hypoacusis should be referred to the Authority. A fit assessment may be
considered if a speech discrimination test or functional flight deck hearing test demonstrates
satisfactory hearing ability. A vestibular function test may be appropriate.
(4) If the hearing requirements can only be met with the use of hearing aids, the hearing aids should
provide optimal hearing function, be well tolerated and suitable for aviation purposes.
(b) Comprehensive otorhinolaryngological examination
A comprehensive otorhino-laryngological examination should include:
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(1) history;
(2) clinical examination including otoscopy, rhinoscopy, and examination of the mouth and throat;
(3) tympanometry or equivalent;
(4) clinical assessment of the vestibular system.
(c) Ear conditions
(1) An applicant with an active pathological process, acute or chronic, of the internal or middle ear
should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered once the condition has stabilised
or there has been a full recovery.
(2) An applicant with an unhealed perforation or dysfunction of the tympanic membranes should be
assessed as unfit. An applicant with a single dry perforation of non-infectious origin and which does
not interfere with the normal function of the ear may be considered for a fit assessment.
(d) Vestibular disturbance
An applicant with disturbance of vestibular function should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be
considered after full recovery. The presence of spontaneous or positional nystagmus requires complete
vestibular evaluation by an ENT specialist. Significant abnormal caloric or rotational vestibular responses
are disqualifying. Abnormal vestibular responses should be assessed in their clinical context.
(e) Sinus dysfunction
An applicant with any dysfunction of the sinuses should be assessed as unfit until there has been full
recovery.
(f) Oral/upper respiratory tract infections
A significant, acute or chronic infection of the oral cavity or upper respiratory tract is disqualifying. A fit
assessment may be considered after full recovery.
(g) Speech disorder
A significant disorder of speech or voice is disqualifying.
AMC1 2.085 Dermatology
(a) Referral to the Authority should be made if doubt exists about the fitness of an applicant with eczema
(exogenous and endogenous), severe psoriasis, bacterial infections, drug induced, or bullous eruptions or
urticaria.
(b) Systemic effects of radiant or pharmacological treatment for a dermatological condition should be
considered before a fit assessment can be considered.
(c) In cases where a dermatological condition is associated with a systemic illness, full consideration should be
given to the underlying illness before a fit assessment may be considered.
AMC1 2.090 Oncology
(a) Applicants who underwent treatment for malignant disease may be assessed as fit by the Authority if:
(1) there is no evidence of residual malignant disease after treatment;
(2) time appropriate to the type of tumour has elapsed since the end of treatment;
(3) the risk of inflight incapacitation from a recurrence or metastasis is sufficiently low;
(4) there is no evidence of short or long-term sequelae from treatment. Special attention should be
paid to applicants who have received anthracycline chemotherapy;
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(5) satisfactory oncology follow-up reports are provided to the Authority.
(b) A multi-pilot limitation should be applied as appropriate.
(c) Applicants with pre-malignant conditions of the skin may be assessed as fit if treated or excised as
necessary and there is regular follow-up.
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Section 3
Specific requirements for class 2 medical certificates
AMC2 2.010 Cardiovascular system
(a) Examination
Exercise electrocardiography
An exercise ECG when required as part of a cardiovascular assessment should be symptom-limited and
completed to a minimum of Bruce Stage IV or equivalent.
(b) General
(1) Cardiovascular risk factor assessment
An accumulation of risk factors (smoking, family history, lipid abnormalities, hypertension, etc.)
requires cardiovascular evaluation.
(2) Cardiovascular assessment
Reporting of resting and exercise electrocardiograms should be by the AME or an accredited
specialist.
(c) Peripheral arterial disease
A fit assessment may be considered for an applicant with peripheral arterial disease, or after surgery for
peripheral arterial disease, provided there is no significant functional impairment, any vascular risk factors
have been reduced to an appropriate level, the applicant is receiving acceptable secondary prevention
treatment, and there is no evidence of myocardial ischaemia.
(d) Aortic aneurysm
(1) Applicants with an aneurysm of the thoracic or abdominal aorta may be assessed as fit, subject to
satisfactory cardiological evaluation and regular follow-up.
(2) Applicants may be assessed as fit after surgery for a thoracic or abdominal aortic aneurysm subject
to satisfactory cardiological evaluation to exclude the presence of coronary artery disease.
(e) Cardiac valvular abnormalities
(1) Applicants with previously unrecognised cardiac murmurs require further cardiological evaluation.
(2) Applicants with minor cardiac valvular abnormalities may be assessed as fit.
(f) Valvular surgery
(1) Applicants who have undergone cardiac valve replacement or repair may be assessed as fit if post-
operative cardiac function and investigations are satisfactory and no anticoagulants are needed.
(2) Where anticoagulation is needed after valvular surgery, a fit assessment with an OSL or OPL
limitation may be considered after cardiological review. The review should show that the
anticoagulation is stable. Anticoagulation should be considered stable if, within the last 6 months,
at least 5 INR values are documented, of which at least 4 are within the INR target range.
(g) Thromboembolic disorders
Arterial or venous thrombosis or pulmonary embolism are disqualifying whilst anticoagulation is being used
as treatment. After 6 months of stable anticoagulation as prophylaxis, a fit assessment with an OSL or OPL
limitation may be considered after review in consultation with the Authority. Anticoagulation should be
considered stable if, within the last 6 months, at least 5 INR values are documented, of which at least 4 are
within the INR target range. Pulmonary embolus should require full evaluation.
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(h) Other cardiac disorders
(1) Applicants with a primary or secondary abnormality of the pericardium, myocardium or
endocardium may be assessed as unfit pending satisfactory cardiological evaluation.
(2) Applicants with a congenital abnormality of the heart, including those who have undergone surgical
correction, may be assessed as fit subject to satisfactory cardiological assessment. Cardiological
follow-up may be necessary and should be determined in consultation with the Authority.
(i) Syncope
Applicants with a history of recurrent vasovagal syncope may be assessed as fit after a 6-month period
without recurrence, provided that cardiological evaluation is satisfactory. Neurological review may be
indicated.
(j) Blood pressure
(1) When the blood pressure at examination consistently exceeds 160 mmHg systolic and/or 95 mmHg
diastolic, with or without treatment, the applicant should be assessed as unfit.
(2) The diagnosis of hypertension requires review of other potential vascular risk factors.
(3) Applicants with symptomatic hypotension should be assessed as unfit.
(4) Anti-hypertensive treatment should be compatible with flight safety.
(5) Following initiation of medication for the control of blood pressure, applicants should be re-
assessed to verify that the treatment is compatible with the safe exercise of the privileges of the
licence held.
(k) Coronary artery disease
(1) Chest pain of uncertain cause requires full investigation.
(2) In suspected asymptomatic coronary artery disease cardiological evaluation should show no
evidence of myocardial ischaemia or significant coronary artery stenosis.
(3) After an ischaemic cardiac event, or revascularisation, applicants without symptoms should have
reduced any vascular risk factors to an appropriate level. Medication, when used to control angina
pectoris, is not acceptable. All applicants should be on acceptable secondary prevention treatment.
(i) A coronary angiogram obtained around the time of, or during, the ischaemic myocardial
event and a complete, detailed clinical report of the ischaemic event and of any operative
procedures should be available to the AME.
(A) There should be no stenosis more than 50 % in any major untreated vessel, in any
vein or artery graft or at the site of an angioplasty/stent, except in a vessel
subtending a myocardial infarction. More than two stenoses between 30 % and 50
% within the vascular tree should not be acceptable.
(B) The whole coronary vascular tree should be assessed as satisfactory and
particular attention should be paid to multiple stenoses and/or multiple
revascularisations.
(C) An untreated stenosis greater than 30 % in the left main or proximal left anterior
descending coronary artery should not be acceptable.
(ii) At least 6 months from the ischaemic myocardial event, including revascularisation, the
following investigations should be completed (equivalent tests may be substituted):
(A) an exercise ECG showing neither evidence of myocardial ischaemia nor rhythm
disturbance;
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(B) an echocardiogram showing satisfactory left ventricular function with no important
abnormality of wall motion and a satisfactory left ventricular ejection fraction of 50
% or more;
(C) in cases of angioplasty/stenting, a myocardial perfusion scan or stress
echocardiogram which should show no evidence of reversible myocardial
ischaemia. If there is doubt about revascularisation in myocardial infarction or
bypass grafting, a perfusion scan should also be required;
(D) further investigations, such as a 24-hour ECG, may be necessary to assess the
risk of any significant rhythm disturbance.
(iii) Periodic follow-up should include cardiological review.
(A) After coronary artery bypass grafting, a myocardial perfusion scan (or satisfactory
equivalent test) should be performed if there is any indication, and in all cases
within five years from the procedure for a fit assessment without a safety pilot
limitation.
(B) In all cases, coronary angiography should be considered at any time if symptoms,
signs or non-invasive tests indicate myocardial ischaemia.
(iv) Successful completion of the six month or subsequent review will allow a fit assessment.
Applicants may be assessed as fit with a safety pilot limitation having successfully
completed only an exercise ECG.
(4) Angina pectoris is disqualifying, whether or not it is abolished by medication.
(l) Rhythm and conduction disturbances
Any significant rhythm or conduction disturbance should require cardiological evaluation and an appropriate
follow-up before a fit assessment may be considered. An OSL or OPL limitation should be considered as
appropriate.
(1) Ablation
A fit assessment may be considered following successful catheter ablation subject to satisfactory
cardiological review undertaken at a minimum of 2 months after the ablation.
(2) Supraventricular arrhythmias
(i) Applicants with significant disturbance of supraventricular rhythm, including sinoatrial
dysfunction, whether intermittent or established, may be assessed as fit if cardiological
evaluation is satisfactory.
(ii) Applicants with atrial fibrillation/flutter may be assessed as fit if cardiological evaluation is
satisfactory.
(iii) Applicants with asymptomatic sinus pauses up to 2.5 seconds on resting
electrocardiography may be assessed as fit if cardiological evaluation is satisfactory.
(3) Heart block
(i) Applicants with first degree and Mobitz type 1 AV block may be assessed as fit.
(ii) Applicants with Mobitz type 2 AV block may be assessed as fit in the absence of distal
conducting tissue disease.
(4) Complete right bundle branch block
Applicants with complete right bundle branch block may be assessed as fit subject to satisfactory
cardiological evaluation.
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(5) Complete left bundle branch block
Applicants with complete left bundle branch block may be assessed as fit subject to satisfactory
cardiological assessment.
(6) Ventricular pre-excitation
Asymptomatic applicants with ventricular pre-excitation may be assessed as fit subject to
satisfactory cardiological evaluation.
(7) Pacemaker
Applicants with a subendocardial pacemaker may be assessed as fit no sooner than 3 months after
insertion provided:
(i) there is no other disqualifying condition;
(ii) a bipolar lead system is used, programmed in bipolar mode without automatic mode
change of the device;
(iii) the applicant is not pacemaker dependent; and
(iv) the applicant has a regular follow-up, including a pacemaker check.
AMC2 2.015 Respiratory system
(a) Chest radiography
Posterior/anterior chest radiography may be required if indicated on clinical grounds.
(b) Chronic obstructive airways disease
Applicants with only minor impairment of pulmonary function may be assessed as fit.
(c) Asthma
Applicants with asthma may be assessed as fit if the asthma is considered stable with satisfactory
pulmonary function tests and medication is compatible with flight safety. Systemic steroids should be
disqualifying.
(d) Inflammatory disease
Applicants with active inflammatory disease of the respiratory system should be assessed as unfit pending
resolution of the condition.
(e) Sarcoidosis
(1) Applicants with active sarcoidosis should be assessed as unfit. Investigation should be undertaken
with respect to the possibility of systemic involvement. A fit assessment may be considered once
the disease is inactive.
(2) Applicants with cardiac sarcoid should be assessed as unfit.
(f) Pneumothorax
(1) Applicants with spontaneous pneumothorax should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be
considered if respiratory evaluation is satisfactory six weeks following full recovery from a single
spontaneous pneumothorax or following recovery from surgical intervention in the case of
treatment for a recurrent pneumothorax.
(2) A fit assessment following full recovery from a traumatic pneumothorax as a result of an accident or
injury may be acceptable once full absorption of the pneumothorax is demonstrated.
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(g) Thoracic surgery
Applicants requiring major thoracic surgery should be assessed as unfit until such time as the effects of the
operation are no longer likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
(h) Sleep apnoea syndrome
Applicants with unsatisfactorily treated sleep apnoea syndrome should be assessed as unfit.
AMC2 2.020 Digestive system
(a) Oesophageal varices
Applicants with oesophageal varices should be assessed as unfit.
(b) Pancreatitis
Applicants with pancreatitis should be assessed as unfit pending satisfactory recovery.
(c) Gallstones
(1) Applicants with a single asymptomatic large gallstone or asymptomatic multiple gallstones may be
assessed as fit.
(2) Applicants with symptomatic single or multiple gallstones should be assessed as unfit. A fit
assessment may be considered following gallstone removal.
(d) Inflammatory bowel disease
Applicants with an established diagnosis or history of chronic inflammatory bowel disease may be
assessed as fit provided that the disease is stable and not likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the
privileges of the applicable licence(s).
(e) Peptic ulceration
Applicants with peptic ulceration should be assessed as unfit pending full recovery.
(f) Abdominal surgery
(1) Abdominal surgery is disqualifying. A fit assessment may be considered if recovery is complete, the
applicant is asymptomatic and there is only a minimal risk of secondary complication or recurrence.
(2) Applicants who have undergone a surgical operation on the digestive tract or its adnexa, involving
a total or partial excision or a diversion of any of these organs, should be assessed as unfit until
such time as the effects of the operation are no longer likely to interfere with the safe exercise of
the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
AMC2 2.025 Metabolic and endocrine systems
(a) Metabolic, nutritional or endocrine dysfunction
Metabolic, nutritional or endocrine dysfunction is disqualifying. A fit assessment may be considered if the
condition is asymptomatic, clinically compensated and stable.
(b) Obesity
Obese applicants may be assessed as fit only if the excess weight is not likely to interfere with the safe
exercise of the applicable licence(s).
(c) Addison’s disease
Applicants with Addison’s disease may be assessed as fit provided that cortisone is carried and available
for use whilst exercising the privileges of the licence.
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(d) Gout
Applicants with acute gout should be assessed as unfit until asymptomatic.
(e) Thyroid dysfunction
Applicants with thyroid disease may be assessed as fit once a stable euthyroid state is attained.
(f) Abnormal glucose metabolism
Glycosuria and abnormal blood glucose levels require investigation. A fit assessment may be considered if
normal glucose tolerance is demonstrated (low renal threshold) or impaired glucose tolerance is fully
controlled by diet and regularly reviewed.
(g) Diabetes mellitus
Applicants with diabetes mellitus may be assessed as fit. The use of antidiabetic medications that are not
likely to cause hypoglycaemia may be acceptable.
AMC2 2.030 Haematology
(a) Abnormal haemoglobin
Haemoglobin should be tested when clinically indicated.
(b) Anaemia
Applicants with anaemia demonstrated by a reduced haemoglobin level or low haematocrit may be
assessed as fit once the primary cause has been treated and the haemoglobin or haematocrit has
stabilised at a satisfactory level.
(c) Polycythaemia
Applicants with polycythaemia may be assessed as fit if the condition is stable and no associated pathology
is demonstrated.
(d) Haemoglobinopathy
Applicants with a haemoglobinopathy may be assessed as fit if minor thalassaemia or other
haemoglobinopathy is diagnosed without a history of crises and where full functional capability is
demonstrated.
(e) Coagulation and haemorrhagic disorders
Applicants with a coagulation or haemorrhagic disorder may be assessed as fit if there is no likelihood of
significant bleeding.
(f) Thrombo-embolic disorders
Applicants with a thrombotic disorder may be assessed as fit if there is no likelihood of significant clotting
episodes.
(g) Disorders of the lymphatic system
Applicants with significant enlargement of the lymphatic glands or haematological disease may be
assessed as fit if the condition is unlikely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the
applicable licence(s). Applicants may be assessed as fit in cases of acute infectious process which is fully
recovered or Hodgkin's lymphoma or other lymphoid malignancy which has been treated and is in full
remission.
(h) Leukaemia
(1) Applicants with acute leukaemia may be assessed as fit once in established remission.
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(2) Applicants with chronic leukaemia may be assessed as fit after a period of demonstrated stability.
(3) In cases (1) and (2) above there should be no history of central nervous system involvement and
no continuing side effects from treatment of flight safety importance. Haemoglobin and platelet
levels should be satisfactory. Regular follow- up is required.
(i) Splenomegaly
Applicants with splenomegaly may be assessed as fit if the enlargement is minimal, stable and no
associated pathology is demonstrated, or if the enlargement is minimal and associated with another
acceptable condition.
AMC2 2.035 Genitourinary system
(a) Renal disease
Applicants presenting with renal disease may be assessed as fit if blood pressure is satisfactory and renal
function is acceptable. The requirement for dialysis is disqualifying.
(b) Urinary calculi
(1) Applicants presenting with one or more urinary calculi should be assessed as unfit.
(2) Applicants with an asymptomatic calculus or a history of renal colic require investigation.
(3) While awaiting assessment or treatment, a fit assessment with a safety pilot limitation may be
considered.
(4) After successful treatment the applicant may be assessed as fit.
(5) Applicants with parenchymal residual calculi may be assessed as fit.
(c) Renal/urological surgery
(1) Applicants who have undergone a major surgical operation on the urinary tract or the urinary
apparatus involving a total or partial excision or a diversion of any of its organs should be assessed
as unfit until such time as the effects of the operation are no longer likely to cause incapacity in
flight. After other urological surgery, a fit assessment may be considered if the applicant is
completely asymptomatic, there is minimal risk of secondary complication or recurrence presenting
with renal disease, if blood pressure is satisfactory and renal function is acceptable. The
requirement for dialysis is disqualifying.
(2) An applicant with compensated nephrectomy without hypertension or uraemia may be assessed as
fit.
(3) Applicants who have undergone renal transplantation may be considered for a fit assessment if it is
fully compensated and with only minimal immuno-suppressive therapy.
(4) Applicants who have undergone total cystectomy may be considered for a fit assessment if there is
satisfactory urinary function, no infection and no recurrence of primary pathology.
AMC2 2.040 Infectious diseases
(a) Tuberculosis
Applicants with active tuberculosis should be assessed as unfit until completion of therapy.
(b) HIV infection
A fit assessment may be considered for HIV positive individuals with stable, non- progressive disease if full
investigation provides no evidence of HIV-associated diseases that might give rise to incapacitating
symptoms.
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AMC2 2.045 Obstetrics and gynaecology
(a) Gynaecological surgery
An applicant who has undergone a major gynaecological operation should be assessed as unfit until such
time as the effects of the operation are not likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the
licence(s).
(b) Pregnancy
(1) A pregnant licence holder may be assessed as fit during the first 26 weeks of gestation following
satisfactory obstetric evaluation.
(2) Licence privileges may be resumed upon satisfactory confirmation of full recovery following
confinement or termination of pregnancy.
AMC2 2.050 Musculoskeletal system
(a) An applicant with any significant sequela from disease, injury or congenital abnormality affecting the bones,
joints, muscles or tendons with or without surgery should require full evaluation prior to fit assessment.
(b) In cases of limb deficiency, a fit assessment may be considered following a satisfactory medical flight test.
(c) An applicant with inflammatory, infiltrative, traumatic or degenerative disease of the musculoskeletal
system may be assessed as fit, provided the condition is in remission and the applicant is taking no
disqualifying medication and has satisfactorily completed a medical flight test. A limitation to specified
aircraft type(s) may be required.
(d) Abnormal physique or muscular weakness may require a satisfactory medical flight test. A limitation to
specified aircraft type(s) may be required.
AMC2 2.055 Psychiatry
(a) Psychotic disorder
A history, or the occurrence, of a functional psychotic disorder is disqualifying unless in certain rare cases a
cause can be unequivocally identified as one which is transient, has ceased and will not recur.
(b) Psychotropic substances
Use or abuse of psychotropic substances likely to affect flight safety is disqualifying. If a stable
maintenance psychotropic medication is confirmed, a fit assessment with an OSL limitation may be
considered.
(c) Schizophrenia, schizotypal or delusional disorder
An applicant with a history of schizophrenia, schizotypal or delusional disorder may only be considered fit if
the original diagnosis was inappropriate or inaccurate as confirmed by psychiatric evaluation or, in the case
of a single episode of delirium, provided that the applicant has suffered no permanent impairment.
(d) Disorders due to alcohol or other substance use
(1) Mental or behavioural disorders due to alcohol or other substance use, with or without dependency,
are disqualifying.
(2) A fit assessment may be considered in consultation with the Authority after a period of two years
documented sobriety or freedom from substance use. A fit assessment may be considered earlier
with an OSL or OPL limitation. Depending on the individual case, treatment and review may
include:
(i) in-patient treatment of some weeks followed by:
(A) review by a psychiatric specialist; and
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(B) on-going review, including blood testing and peer reports, which may be required
indefinitely.
AMC2 2.060 Psychology
Applicants with a psychological disorder may need to be referred for psychological or neuropsychiatric opinion and
advice.
AMC2 2.065 Neurology
(a) Epilepsy
An applicant may be assessed as fit if:
(1) there is a history of a single afebrile epileptiform seizure, considered to have a very low risk of
recurrence;
(2) there has been no recurrence after at least 10 years off treatment;
(3) there is no evidence of continuing predisposition to epilepsy.
(b) Conditions with a high propensity for cerebral dysfunction
An applicant with a condition with a high propensity for cerebral dysfunction should be assessed as unfit. A
fit assessment may be considered after full evaluation.
(c) Neurological disease
Any stationary or progressive disease of the nervous system which has caused or is likely to cause a
significant disability is disqualifying. In case of minor functional loss associated with stationary disease, a fit
assessment may be considered after full evaluation.
(d) Head injury
An applicant with a head injury which was severe enough to cause loss of consciousness or is associated
with penetrating brain injury may be assessed as fit if there has been a full recovery and the risk of epilepsy
is sufficiently low.
AMC2 2.070 Visual system
(a) Eye examination
(1) At each aero-medical revalidation examination an assessment of the visual fitness of the licence
holder should be undertaken and the eyes should be examined with regard to possible pathology.
Conditions which indicate further ophthalmological examination include, but are not limited to, a
substantial decrease in the uncorrected visual acuity, any decrease in best corrected visual acuity
and/or the occurrence of eye disease, eye injury, or eye surgery.
(2) At the initial assessment, the examination should include:
(i) history;
(ii) visual acuities - near, intermediate and distant vision (uncorrected and with best optical
correction if needed);
(iii) examination of the external eye, anatomy, media and fundoscopy;
(iv) ocular motility;
(v) binocular vision;
(vi) colour vision and visual fields;
(vii) further examination on clinical indication.
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(3) At the initial assessment the applicant should submit a copy of the recent spectacle prescription if
visual correction is required to meet the visual requirements.
(b) Routine eye examination
A routine eye examination should include:
(1) history;
(2) visual acuities - near, intermediate and distant vision (uncorrected and with best optical correction if
needed);
(3) examination of the external eye, anatomy, media and fundoscopy;
(4) further examination on clinical indication.
(c) Visual acuity
In an applicant with amblyopia, the visual acuity of the amblyopic eye should be 6/18 (0,3) or better. The
applicant may be assessed as fit, provided the visual acuity in the other eye is 6/6 (1,0) or better, with or
without correction, and no significant pathology can be demonstrated.
(d) Substandard vision
(1) Reduced stereopsis, abnormal convergence not interfering with near vision and ocular
misalignment where the fusional reserves are sufficient to prevent asthenopia and diplopia may be
acceptable.
(2) An applicant with substandard vision in one eye may be assessed as fit subject to a satisfactory
flight test if the better eye:
(i) achieves distant visual acuity of 6/6 (1,0), corrected or uncorrected;
(ii) achieves intermediate visual acuity of N14 and N5 for near;
(iii) has no significant pathology.
(3) An applicant with a visual field defect may be considered as fit if the binocular visual field is normal
and the underlying pathology is acceptable.
(e) Eye surgery
(1) The assessment after eye surgery should include an ophthalmological examination.
(2) After refractive surgery a fit assessment may be considered provided that there is stability of
refraction, there are no postoperative complications and no increase in glare sensitivity.
(3) After cataract, retinal or glaucoma surgery a fit assessment may be considered once recovery is
complete.
(f) Correcting lenses
Correcting lenses should permit the licence holder to meet the visual requirements at all distances.
AMC2 MED 2.075 Colour vision
(a) The Ishihara test (24 plate version) is considered passed if the first 15 plates, presented in a random order,
are identified without error.
(b) Those failing the Ishihara test should be examined either by:
(1) anomaloscopy (Nagel or equivalent). This test is considered passed if the colour match is
trichromatic and the matching range is 4 scale units or less; or by
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(2) lantern testing with a Spectrolux, Beynes or Holmes-Wright lantern. This test is considered passed
if the applicant passes without error a test with accepted lanterns.
(c) Colour vision should be tested on clinical indication at revalidation or renewal examinations.
AMC2 2.080 Otorhino-laryngology
(a) Hearing
(1) The applicant should understand correctly conversational speech when tested with each ear at a
distance of 2 metres from and with the applicant’s back turned towards the AME.
(2) An applicant with hypoacusis may be assessed as fit if a speech discrimination test or functional
cockpit hearing test demonstrates satisfactory hearing ability. An applicant for an instrument rating
with hypoacusis should be assessed in consultation with the Authority.
(3) If the hearing requirements can be met only with the use of hearing aids, the hearing aids should
provide optimal hearing function, be well tolerated and suitable for aviation purposes.
(b) Examination
An ear, nose and throat (ENT) examination should form part of all initial, revalidation and renewal
examinations.
(c) Ear conditions
(1) An applicant with an active pathological process, acute or chronic, of the internal or middle ear
should be assessed as unfit until the condition has stabilised or there has been a full recovery.
(2) An applicant with an unhealed perforation or dysfunction of the tympanic membranes should be
assessed as unfit. An applicant with a single dry perforation of non-infectious origin which does not
interfere with the normal function of the ear may be considered for a fit assessment.
(d) Vestibular disturbance
An applicant with disturbance of vestibular function should be assessed as unfit pending full recovery.
(e) Sinus dysfunction
An applicant with any dysfunction of the sinuses should be assessed as unfit pending full recovery.
(f) Oral/upper respiratory tract infections
A significant acute or chronic infection of the oral cavity or upper respiratory tract is disqualifying until full
recovery.
(g) Speech disorder
A significant disorder of speech or voice should be disqualifying.
(h) Air passage restrictions
An applicant with significant restriction of the nasal air passage on either side, or significant malformation of
the oral cavity or upper respiratory tract may be assessed as fit if ENT evaluation is satisfactory.
(i) Eustachian tube function
An applicant with significant dysfunction of the Eustachian tubes may be assessed as fit in consultation with
the Authority.
AMC2 2.085 Dermatology
In cases where a dermatological condition is associated with a systemic illness, full consideration should be given
to the underlying illness before a fit assessment can be considered.
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AMC 2.090 Oncology
(a) Applicants may be considered for a fit assessment after treatment for malignant disease if:
(1) there is no evidence of residual malignant disease after treatment;
(2) time appropriate to the type of tumour has elapsed since the end of treatment;
(3) the risk of in-flight incapacitation from a recurrence or metastasis is sufficiently low;
(4) there is no evidence of short or long-term sequelae from treatment that may adversely affect flight
safety;
(5) special attention is paid to applicants who have received anthracyline chemotherapy;
(6) arrangements for an oncological follow-up have been made for an appropriate period of time.
(b) Applicants with pre-malignant conditions of the skin may be assessed as fit if treated or excised as
necessary and there is a regular follow-up.
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Section 4
Specific requirements for Class 3 medical certificates
AMC3 2.010 Cardiovascular system
(a) Electrocardiography
(1) An exercise electrocardiogram (ECG) when required as part of a cardiovascular assessment
should be symptom-limited and completed to a minimum of Bruce Stage IV or equivalent.
(2) Reporting of resting and exercise ECGs should be carried out by the AME or an appropriate
specialist.
(b) General
(1) Cardiovascular risk factor assessment
(i) Serum/plasma lipid estimation is case finding and significant abnormalities should require
investigation and management under the supervision of the AeMC or AME in consultation
with the Authority if necessary.
(ii) An accumulation of risk factors (smoking, family history, lipid abnormalities, hypertension,
etc.) should require cardiovascular evaluation by the AeMC or AME in consultation with the
Authority if necessary.
(2) Extended cardiovascular assessment
(i) The extended cardiovascular assessment should be undertaken at an AeMC or by a
cardiologist.
(ii) The extended cardiovascular assessment should include an exercise ECG or other test
that will provide equivalent information.
(c) Peripheral arterial disease
Applicants with peripheral arterial disease, before or after surgery, should undergo satisfactory
cardiological evaluation including an exercise ECG and 2D echocardiography. Further tests may be
required which should show no evidence of myocardial ischaemia or significant coronary artery stenosis. A
fit assessment may be considered provided:
(1) the exercise ECG is satisfactory; and
(2) there is no sign of significant coronary artery disease or evidence of significant atheroma
elsewhere, and no functional impairment of the end organ supplied.
(d) Aortic aneurysm
(1) Applicants with an aneurysm of the infra-renal abdominal aorta may be assessed as fit following a
satisfactory cardiological evaluation.
(2) Applicants may be assessed as fit after surgery for an aneurysm of the thoracic or abdominal aorta
if the blood pressure and cardiovascular evaluation are satisfactory. Regular evaluations by a
cardiologist should be carried out.
(e) Cardiac valvular abnormalities
(1) Applicants with previously unrecognised cardiac murmurs should require cardiological evaluation. If
considered significant, further investigation should include at least 2D Doppler echocardiography.
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(2) Applicants with minor cardiac valvular abnormalities may be assessed as fit by the Authority.
Applicants with significant abnormality of any of the heart valves should be assessed as unfit.
(3) Aortic valve disease
(i) Applicants with bicuspid aortic valve may be assessed as fit if no other cardiac or aortic
abnormality is demonstrated. Regular cardiological follow-up, including 2D Doppler
echocardiography, may be required.
(ii) Applicants with mild aortic stenosis may be assessed as fit. Annual cardiological follow-up
may be required and should include 2D Doppler echocardiography.
(iii) Applicants with aortic regurgitation may be assessed as fit only if regurgitation is minor and
there is no evidence of volume overload. There should be no demonstrable abnormality of
the ascending aorta on 2D Doppler echocardiography. Cardiological follow-up including 2D
Doppler echocardiography may be required.
(4) Mitral valve disease
(i) Applicants with rheumatic mitral stenosis may only be assessed as fit in favourable cases
after cardiological evaluation including 2D echocardiography.
(ii) Applicants with uncomplicated minor regurgitation may be assessed as fit. Regular
cardiological follow-up including 2D echocardiography may be required.
(iii) Applicants with mitral valve prolapse and mild mitral regurgitation may be assessed as fit.
(iv) Applicants with evidence of volume overloading of the left ventricle demonstrated by
increased left ventricular end-diastolic diameter should be assessed as unfit.
(f) Valvular surgery
Applicants with cardiac valve replacement/repair should be assessed as unfit. After a satisfactory
cardiological evaluation, fit assessment may be considered.
(1) Asymptomatic applicants may be assessed as fit by the Authority six months after valvular surgery
subject to:
(i) normal valvular and ventricular function as judged by 2D Doppler echocardiography;
(ii) satisfactory symptom-limited exercise ECG or equivalent;
(iii) demonstrated absence of coronary artery disease unless this has been satisfactorily
treated by re-vascularisation;
(iv) no cardioactive medication is required;
(v) annual cardiological follow-up to include an exercise ECG and 2D Doppler
echocardiography. Longer periods may be acceptable once a stable condition has been
confirmed by cardiological evaluations.
(2) Applicants with implanted mechanical valves may be assessed as fit subject to documented
exemplary control of their anti-coagulant therapy. Age factors should form part of the risk
assessment.
(g) Thromboembolic disorders
Applicants with arterial or venous thrombosis or pulmonary embolism should be assessed as unfit during
the first six months of anticoagulation. A fit assessment, with a limitation if necessary, may be considered
by the Authority after six months of stable anticoagulation.
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Anticoagulation should be considered stable if, within the last six months, at least five international
normalised ratio (INR) values are documented, of which at least four are within the INR target range and
the haemorrhagic risk is acceptable.
In cases of anticoagulation medication not requiring INR monitoring, a fit assessment may be considered
after review by the Authority after a period of three months. Applicants with pulmonary embolism should
also be evaluated by a cardiologist. Following cessation of anticoagulant therapy, for any indication,
applicants should undergo a reassessment by the Authority.
(h) Other cardiac disorders
(1) Applicants with a primary or secondary abnormality of the pericardium, myocardium or
endocardium should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered following complete
resolution and satisfactory cardiological evaluation which may include 2D Doppler
echocardiography, exercise ECG, 24-hour ambulatory ECG, and/or myocardial perfusion scan or
equivalent test. Coronary angiography may be indicated. Regular cardiological follow-up may be
required.
(2) Applicants with a congenital abnormality of the heart should be assessed as unfit. Applicants
following surgical correction or with minor abnormalities that are functionally unimportant may be
assessed as fit following cardiological assessment. No cardioactive medication is acceptable.
Investigations may include 2D Doppler echocardiography, exercise ECG and 24-hour ambulatory
ECG. Regular cardiological follow-up may be required.
(i) Syncope
(1) Applicants with a history of recurrent episodes of syncope should be assessed as unfit. A fit
assessment may be considered after a sufficient period of time without recurrence provided
cardiological evaluation is satisfactory.
(2) A cardiological evaluation should include:
(i) a satisfactory symptom exercise ECG. If the exercise ECG is abnormal, a myocardial
perfusion scan or equivalent test should be required;
(ii) a 2D Doppler echocardiogram showing neither significant selective chamber enlargement
nor structural or functional abnormality of the heart, valves or myocardium;
(iii) a 24-hour ambulatory ECG recording showing no conduction disturbance, complex or
sustained rhythm disturbance or evidence of myocardial ischaemia;
(iv) a tilt test carried out to a standard protocol showing no evidence of vasomotor instability.
(3) Neurological review should be required.
(j) Blood pressure
(1) Anti-hypertensive treatment should be agreed by the Authority. Medication may include:
(i) non-loop diuretic agents;
(ii) Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE) inhibitors;
(iii) angiotensin II receptor blocking agents;
(iv) long-acting slow channel calcium blocking agents;
(v) certain (generally hydrophilic) beta-blocking agents.
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(2) Following initiation of medication for the control of blood pressure, applicants should be re-
assessed to verify that the treatment is compatible with the safe exercise of the privileges of the
licence.
(k) Coronary artery disease
(1) Applicants with chest pain of an uncertain cause should undergo a full investigation before a fit
assessment may be considered. Applicants with angina pectoris should be assessed as unfit,
whether or not it is abolished by medication.
(2) Applicants with suspected asymptomatic coronary artery disease should undergo a cardiological
evaluation including exercise ECG. Further tests (myocardial perfusion scanning, stress
echocardiography, coronary angiography or equivalent) may be required, which should show no
evidence of myocardial ischaemia or significant coronary artery stenosis.
(3) After an ischaemic cardiac event, including revascularisation, applicants without symptoms should
have reduced any vascular risk factors to an appropriate level. Medication, when used to control
cardiac symptoms, is not acceptable. All applicants should be on acceptable secondary prevention
treatment.
(i) A coronary angiogram obtained around the time of, or during, the ischaemic myocardial
event and a complete, detailed clinical report of the ischaemic event and of any operative
procedures should be available.
(A) there should be no stenosis more than 50 % in any major untreated vessel, in any
vein or artery graft or at the site of an angioplasty/stent, except in a vessel
subtending a myocardial infarction;
(B) the whole coronary vascular tree should be assessed as satisfactory by a
cardiologist, and particular attention should be paid to multiple stenoses and/or
multiple revascularisations;
(C) an untreated stenosis greater than 30 % in the left main or proximal left anterior
descending coronary artery should not be acceptable.
(ii) At least six months from the ischaemic myocardial event, including revascularisation, the
following investigations should be completed:
(A) an exercise ECG showing neither evidence of myocardial ischaemia nor rhythm or
conduction disturbance;
(B) an echocardiogram or equivalent test showing satisfactory left ventricular function
with no important abnormality of wall motion (such as dyskinesia or akinesia) and a
left ventricular ejection fraction of 50 % or more;
(C) in cases of angioplasty/stenting, a myocardial perfusion scan or equivalent test,
which should show no evidence of reversible myocardial ischaemia. If there is any
doubt about myocardial perfusion, in other cases (infarction or bypass grafting), a
perfusion scan should also be required;
(D) further investigations, such as a 24-hour ECG, may be necessary to assess the
risk of any significant rhythm disturbance.
(iii) Follow-up should be conducted annually (or more frequently, if necessary) to ensure that
there is no deterioration of the cardiovascular status. It should include a cardiological
evaluation, exercise ECG and cardiovascular risk assessment. Additional investigations
may be required.
(iv) After coronary artery vein bypass grafting, a myocardial perfusion scan or equivalent test
should be performed on clinical indication, and in all cases within five years from the
procedure.
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(v) In all cases, coronary angiography, or an equivalent test, should be considered at any time
if symptoms, signs or non-invasive tests indicate myocardial ischaemia.
(vi) Applicants may be assessed as fit after successful completion of the three-month or
subsequent review.
(l) Rhythm and conduction disturbances
(1) Applicants with any significant rhythm or conduction disturbance may be assessed as fit after
cardiological evaluation and with appropriate follow-up. Such evaluation should include:
(i) exercise ECG which should show no significant abnormality of rhythm or conduction, and
no evidence of myocardial ischaemia. Withdrawal of cardioactive medication prior to the
test should be required;
(ii) 24-hour ambulatory ECG which should demonstrate no significant rhythm or conduction
disturbance;
(iii) 2D Doppler echocardiogram which should show no significant selective chamber
enlargement or significant structural or functional abnormality, and a left ventricular ejection
fraction of at least 50 %.
Further evaluation may include:
(iv) 24-hour ECG recording repeated as necessary;
(v) electrophysiological study;
(vi) myocardial perfusion imaging or equivalent test;
(vii) cardiac magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) or equivalent test;
(viii) coronary angiogram or equivalent test.
(2) Applicants with supraventricular or ventricular ectopic complexes on a resting ECG may require no
further evaluation, provided the frequency can be shown to be no greater than one per minute, for
example on an extended ECG strip.
Applicants with asymptomatic isolated uniform ventricular ectopic complexes may be assessed as
fit, but frequent or complex forms require full cardiological evaluation.
(3) Where anticoagulation is needed for a rhythm disturbance, a fit assessment may be considered if
the haemorrhagic risk is acceptable and the anticoagulation is stable. Anticoagulation should be
considered stable if, within the last six months, at least five INR values are documented, of which at
least four are within the INR target range. In cases of anticoagulation medication not requiring INR
monitoring, a fit assessment with an appropriate limitation may be considered after review by the
Authority after a period of three months.
(4) Ablation
(i) Applicants who have undergone ablation therapy should be assessed as unfit for a
minimum period of two months.
(ii) A fit assessment may be considered following successful catheter ablation provided an
electrophysiological study (EPS) demonstrates satisfactory control has been achieved.
(iii) Where EPS is not performed, longer periods of unfitness and cardiological follow-up should
be considered.
(iv) Follow-up should include a cardiological review.
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(5) Supraventricular arrhythmias
Applicants with significant disturbance of supraventricular rhythm, including sinoatrial dysfunction,
whether intermittent or established, should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be
considered if cardiological evaluation is satisfactory.
(i) For initial applicants with atrial fibrillation/flutter, a fit assessment should be limited to those
with a single episode of arrhythmia which is considered to be unlikely to recur.
(ii) For revalidation, applicants may be assessed as fit if cardiological evaluation is satisfactory
and the stroke risk is sufficiently low. A fit assessment may be considered after a period of
stable anticoagulation as prophylaxis, after review by the Authority. Anticoagulation should
be considered stable if, within the last six months, at least five INR values are documented,
of which at least four are within the INR target range. In cases of anticoagulation
medication not requiring INR monitoring, a fit assessment may be considered after review
by the Authority after a period of three months.
(iii) Applicants with asymptomatic sinus pauses up to 2.5 seconds on a resting ECG may be
assessed as fit if exercise ECG, 2D echocardiography and 24-hour ambulatory ECG are
satisfactory.
(iv) Applicants with symptomatic sino-atrial disease should be assessed as unfit.
(6) Mobitz type 2 atrio-ventricular block
Applicants with Mobitz type 2 AV block may be assessed as fit after a full cardiological evaluation
confirms the absence of distal conducting tissue disease.
(7) Complete right bundle branch block
Applicants with complete right bundle branch block should require cardiological evaluation on first
presentation.
(8) Complete left bundle branch block
A fit assessment may be considered as follows:
(i) Initial applicants may be assessed as fit after full cardiological evaluation showing no
pathology. Depending on the clinical situation, a period of stability may be required.
(ii) Applicants for revalidation or renewal of a medical certificate with a de-novo left bundle
branch block may be assessed as fit after cardiological evaluation showing no pathology. A
period of stability may be required.
(iii) A cardiological evaluation should be required after 12 months in all cases.
(9) Ventricular pre-excitation
Applicants with pre-excitation may be assessed as fit if they are asymptomatic, and an
electrophysiological study, including an adequate drug-induced autonomic stimulation protocol,
reveals no inducible re-entry tachycardia and the existence of multiple pathways is excluded.
Cardiological follow-up should be required including a 24-hour ambulatory ECG recording showing
no tendency to symptomatic or asymptomatic tachy-arrhythmia.
(10) Pacemaker
Applicants with a subendocardial pacemaker may be assessed as fit three months after insertion
provided:
(i) there is no other disqualifying condition;
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(ii) bipolar lead systems programmed in bipolar mode without automatic mode change have
been used;
(iii) that the applicant is not pacemaker dependent;
(iv) regular cardiological follow-up should include a symptom-limited exercise ECG that shows
no abnormality or evidence of myocardial ischaemia.
(11) QT prolongation
Applicants with asymptomatic QT-prolongation may be assessed as fit subject to a satisfactory
cardiological evaluation.
(12) Brugada pattern on electrocardiography
Applicants with a Brugada pattern Type 1 should be assessed as unfit. Applicants with Type 2 or
Type 3 may be assessed as fit, with limitations as appropriate, subject to satisfactory cardiological
evaluation.
GM1 2.010 Cardiovascular system
MITRAL VALVE DISEASE
(a) Minor regurgitation should have evidence of no thickened leaflets or flail chordae and left atrial internal
diameter of less than or equal to 4.0 cm.
(b) The following may indicate severe regurgitation:
(1) LV internal diameter (diastole) > 6.0 cm; or
(2) LV internal diameter (systole) > 4.1 cm; or
(3) Left atrial internal diameter > 4.5 cm.
(c) Doppler indices, such as width of jet, backwards extension and whether there is flow reversal in the
pulmonary veins may be helpful in assessing severity of regurgitation.
GM2 2.010 Cardiovascular system
VENTRICULAR PRE-EXCITATION
(a) Asymptomatic applicants with pre-excitation may be assessed as fit at revalidation with an Operational
Multi-pilot Limitation (OML) if they meet the following criteria:
(1) no inducible re-entry;
(2) refractory period > 300 ms;
(3) no induced atrial fibrillation.
(b) There should be no evidence of multiple accessory pathways.
GM3 2.010 Cardiovascular system
COMPLETE LEFT BUNDLE BRANCH BLOCK
Left bundle branch block is more commonly associated with coronary artery disease and, thus, requires more in-
depth investigation, which may be invasive.
GM4 2.010 Cardiovascular system
PACEMAKER
(a) Scintigraphy may be helpful in the presence of conduction disturbance/paced complexes in the resting
ECG.
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(b) Experience has shown that any failures of pacemakers are most likely to occur in the first three months
after being fitted. Therefore, a fit assessment should not be considered before this period has elapsed.
(c) It is known that certain operational equipment may interfere with the performance of the pacemaker. The
type of pacemaker used, therefore, should have been tested to ensure it does not suffer from interference
in the operational environment. Supporting data and a performance statement to this effect should be
available from the supplier.
GM5 2.010 Cardiovascular system
ANTICOAGULATION
Applicants and licence holders taking anticoagulant medication which requires monitoring with INR testing, should
measure their INR on a ‘near patient’ testing system within 12 hours prior to starting a shift pattern and then at least
every three days during the shift pattern. The privileges of the licence should only be exercised if the INR is within
the target range. The INR result should be recorded and the results should be reviewed at each aero-medical
assessment.
AMC3 2.015 Respiratory system
(a) Examination
(1) Spirometric examination is required for initial examination. An FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70 %
should require evaluation by a specialist in respiratory disease before a fit assessment can be
considered.
(2) Posterior/anterior chest radiography may be required at initial, revalidation or renewal examinations
when indicated on clinical or epidemiological grounds.
(b) Chronic obstructive airways disease
Applicants with chronic obstructive airways disease should be assessed as unfit. Applicants with only minor
impairment of their pulmonary function may be assessed as fit after specialist respiratory evaluation.
Applicants with pulmonary emphysema may be assessed as fit following specialist evaluation showing that
the condition is stable and not causing significant symptoms.
(c) Asthma
Applicants with asthma requiring medication or experiencing recurrent attacks of asthma may be assessed
as fit if the asthma is considered stable with satisfactory pulmonary function tests and medication is
compatible with the safe execution of the privileges of the licence. Use of low dose systemic steroids may
be acceptable.
(d) Inflammatory disease
(1) For applicants with active inflammatory disease of the respiratory system, a fit assessment may be
considered when the condition has resolved without sequelae and no medication is required.
(2) Applicants with chronic inflammatory diseases may be assessed as fit following specialist
evaluation showing mild disease with acceptable pulmonary function test and medication
compatible with the safe execution of the privileges of the licence.
(e) Sarcoidosis
(1) Applicants with active sarcoidosis should be assessed as unfit. Specialist evaluation should be
undertaken with respect to the possibility of systemic, particularly cardiac, involvement. A fit
assessment may be considered if no medication is required, and the disease is limited to hilar
lymphadenopathy and inactive. Use of low dose systemic steroids may be acceptable.
(2) Applicants with cardiac or neurological sarcoid should be assessed as unfit.
(f) Pneumothorax
Applicants with a spontaneous pneumothorax should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be
considered:
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(1) six weeks after the event provided full recovery from a single event has been confirmed in a full
respiratory evaluation including a CT scan or equivalent;
(2) following surgical intervention in the case of a recurrent pneumothorax provided there is
satisfactory recovery.
(g) Thoracic surgery
(1) Applicants requiring thoracic surgery should be assessed as unfit until such time as the effects of
the operation are no longer likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the licence.
(2) A fit assessment may be considered after satisfactory recovery and full respiratory evaluation
including a CT scan or equivalent. The underlying pathology which necessitated the surgery should
be considered in the aero-medical assessment.
(h) Sleep apnoea syndrome/sleep disorder
(1) Applicants with unsatisfactorily treated sleep apnoea syndrome and suffering from excessive
daytime sleepiness should be assessed as unfit.
(2) A fit assessment may be considered subject to the extent of symptoms, including vigilance, and
satisfactory treatment. ATCO operational experience, sleep apnoea syndrome/sleep disorder
education and work place considerations are essential components of the medical assessment.
AMC3 2.020 Digestive system
(a) Oesophageal varices
Applicants with oesophageal varices should be assessed as unfit.
(b) Pancreatitis
(1) Applicants with pancreatitis should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered if the
cause (e.g. gallstone, other obstruction, medication) is removed.
(2) Alcohol may be a cause of dyspepsia and pancreatitis. If considered appropriate, a full evaluation
of its use or misuse should be undertaken.
(c) Gallstones
(1) Applicants with a single large gallstone may be assessed as fit after evaluation.
(2) Applicants with multiple gallstones may be assessed as fit while awaiting treatment provided the
symptoms are unlikely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the licence.
(d) Inflammatory bowel disease
Applicants with an established diagnosis or history of chronic inflammatory bowel disease may be
assessed as fit if the disease is in established stable remission, and only minimal, if any, medication is
being taken. Regular follow-up should be required.
(e) Dyspepsia
Applicants with recurrent dyspepsia requiring medication should be investigated by internal examination
including radiologic or endoscopic examination. Laboratory testing should include haemoglobin
assessment and faecal examination. Any demonstrated ulceration or significant inflammation requires
evidence of recovery before a fit assessment may be considered.
(f) Digestive tract and abdominal surgery
Applicants who have undergone a surgical operation on the digestive tract or its adnexa, including a total or
partial excision or a diversion of any of these organs, should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be
considered if recovery is complete, the applicant is asymptomatic and the risk of secondary complication or
recurrence is minimal.
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AMC3 2.025 Metabolic and endocrine system
(a) Metabolic, nutritional or endocrine dysfunction
Applicants with metabolic, nutritional or endocrine dysfunction may be assessed as fit if the condition is
asymptomatic, clinically compensated and stable with or without replacement therapy, and regularly
reviewed by an appropriate specialist.
(b) Obesity
(1) Applicants with a Body Mass Index > 35 may be assessed as fit only if the excess weight is not
likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the licence and a satisfactory
cardiovascular risk review and evaluation of the possibility of sleep apnoea syndrome has been
undertaken.
(2) Functional testing in the working environment may be necessary before a fit assessment may be
considered.
(c) Thyroid dysfunction
Applicants with hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism should attain a stable euthyroid state before a fit
assessment may be considered.
(d) Abnormal glucose metabolism
Glycosuria and abnormal blood glucose levels require investigation. A fit assessment may be considered if
normal glucose tolerance is demonstrated (low renal threshold) or impaired glucose tolerance without
diabetic pathology is fully controlled by diet and regularly reviewed.
(e) Diabetes mellitus
(1) The following medication, alone and in combination, may be acceptable for control of type 2
diabetes:
(i) alpha-glucosidase inhibitors;
(ii) medication that acts on the incretin pathway;
(iii) biguanides.
(2) A fit assessment may be considered after evaluation of the operational environment, including
means of glucose monitoring/management whilst performing rated duties, and with demonstrated
exemplary glycaemic control.
(3) Annual follow-up by a specialist should be required including demonstration of absence of
complications, good glycaemic control demonstrated by six-monthly HbA1c measurements, and a
normal exercise tolerance test.
AMC3 2.030 Haematology
(a) Anaemia
(1) Anaemia demonstrated by a reduced haemoglobin level should require investigation. A fit
assessment may be considered in cases where the primary cause has been treated (e.g. iron or
B12 deficiency) and the haemoglobin or haematocrit has stabilised at a satisfactory level. The
recommended range of the haemoglobin level is 1117 g/dl.
(2) Anaemia which is unamenable to treatment should be disqualifying.
(b) Haemoglobinopathy
Applicants with a haemoglobinopathy should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered
where minor thalassaemia, sickle cell disease or other haemoglobinopathy is diagnosed without a history of
crises and where full functional capability is demonstrated.
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(c) Coagulation disorders
(1) Significant coagulation disorders require investigation. A fit assessment may be considered if there
is no history of significant bleeding or clotting episodes and the haematological data indicate that it
is safe to do so.
(2) If anticoagulant therapy is prescribed, AMC 2.010(g) should be followed.
(d) Disorders of the lymphatic system
Lymphatic enlargement requires investigation. A fit assessment may be considered in cases of an acute
infectious process which is fully recovered, or Hodgkin’s lymphoma, or other lymphoid malignancy which
has been treated and is in full remission, or that requires minimal or no treatment.
(e) Leukaemia
(1) Applicants with acute leukaemia should be assessed as unfit. Once in established remission,
applicants may be assessed as fit.
(2) Applicants with chronic leukaemia should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be
considered after remission and a period of demonstrated stability.
(3) Applicants with a history of leukaemia should have no history of central nervous system
involvement and no continuing side effects from treatment which are likely to interfere with the safe
exercise of the privileges of the licence. Haemoglobin and platelet levels should be satisfactory.
(4) Regular follow-up is required in all cases of leukaemia.
(f) Splenomegaly
Splenomegaly requires investigation. A fit assessment may be considered if the enlargement is minimal,
stable and no associated pathology is demonstrated, or if the enlargement is minimal and associated with
another acceptable condition.
GM1 2.030 Haematology
HODGKIN’S LYMPHOMA
Due to potential side effects of specific chemotherapeutic agents, the precise regime utilised should be taken into
account.
GM2 2.030 Haematology
CHRONIC LEUKAEMIA
A fit assessment may be considered if the chronic leukaemia has been diagnosed as:
(a) lymphatic at stages 0, I, and possibly II without anaemia and minimal treatment; or
(b) stable ‘hairy cell’ leukaemia with normal haemoglobin and platelets.
GM3 2.030 Haematology
SPLENOMEGALY
(a) Splenomegaly should not preclude a fit assessment, but should be assessed on an individual basis.
(b) Associated pathology of splenomegaly is e.g. treated chronic malaria.
(c) An acceptable condition associated with splenomegaly is e.g. Hodgkin’s lymphoma in remission.
AMC3 2.035 Genitourinary system
(a) Abnormal urinalysis
Any abnormal finding on urinalysis requires investigation. This investigation should include proteinuria,
haematuria and glycosuria.
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(b) Renal disease
(1) Applicants presenting with any signs of renal disease should be assessed as unfit. A fit
assessment may be considered if blood pressure is satisfactory and renal function is acceptable.
(2) Applicants requiring dialysis should be assessed as unfit.
(c) Urinary calculi
(1) Applicants with an asymptomatic calculus or a history of renal colic require investigation. A fit
assessment may be considered after successful treatment for a calculus and with appropriate
follow-up.
(2) Residual calculi should be disqualifying unless they are in a location where they are unlikely to
move and give rise to symptoms.
(d) Renal and urological surgery
(1) Applicants who have undergone a major surgical operation on the genitourinary system or its
adnexa involving a total or partial excision or a diversion of any of its organs should be assessed
as unfit until recovery is complete, the applicant is asymptomatic and the risk of secondary
complications is minimal.
(2) Applicants with compensated nephrectomy without hypertension or uraemia may be assessed as
fit.
(3) Applicants who have undergone renal transplantation may be considered for a fit assessment if it is
fully compensated and tolerated with only minimal immuno-suppressive therapy after at least 12
months.
(4) Applicants who have undergone total cystectomy may be considered for a fit assessment if there is
satisfactory urinary function, no infection and no recurrence of primary pathology.
AMC3 2.040 Infectious disease
(a) Infectious disease General
In cases of infectious disease, consideration should be given to a history of, or clinical signs indicating,
underlying impairment of the immune system.
(b) Tuberculosis
(1) Applicants with active tuberculosis should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be
considered following completion of therapy.
(2) Applicants with quiescent or healed lesions may be assessed as fit. Specialist evaluation should
consider the extent of the disease, the treatment required and possible side effects of medication.
(c) Syphilis
Applicants with acute syphilis should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered in the case
of those fully treated and recovered from the primary and secondary stages.
(d) HIV positivity
(1) Applicants who are HIV positive may be assessed as fit if a full investigation provides no evidence
of HIV associated diseases that might give rise to incapacitating symptoms. Frequent review of the
immunological status and neurological evaluation by an appropriate specialist should be carried
out. A cardiological review may also be required depending on medication.
(2) Applicants with an AIDS defining condition should be assessed as unfit except in individual cases
for revalidation of a medical certificate after complete recovery and dependent on the review.
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(3) The aero-medical assessment of individual cases under (1) and (2) should be dependent on the
absence of symptoms or signs of the disease and the acceptability of serological markers.
Treatment should be evaluated by a specialist on an individual basis for its appropriateness and
any side effects.
(e) Infectious hepatitis
Applicants with infectious hepatitis should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered once
the applicant has become asymptomatic after treatment and specialist evaluation. Regular review of the
liver function should be carried out.
GM1 2.040 Infectious disease
HIV INFECTION
(a) There is no requirement for routine testing of HIV status, but testing may be carried out on clinical
indication.
(b) If HIV positivity has been confirmed, a process of rigorous aero-medical assessment and follow-up should
be introduced to enable individuals to continue working provided their ability to exercise their licenced
privileges to the required level of safety is not impaired. The operational environment should be considered
in the decision-making.
AMC3 2.045 Obstetrics and gynaecology
(a) Gynaecological surgery
Applicants who have undergone a major gynaecological operation should be assessed as unfit until
recovery is complete, the applicant is asymptomatic and the risk of secondary complications or recurrence
is minimal.
(b) Pregnancy
(1) A pregnant licence holder may be assessed as fit during the first 34 weeks of gestation provided
obstetric evaluation continuously indicates a normal pregnancy.
(2) The AeMC or AME or the Authority should provide written advice to the applicant and the
supervising physician regarding potentially significant complications of pregnancy which may
negatively influence the safe exercise of the privileges of the licence.
AMC3 2.050 Musculoskeletal system
(a) Applicants with any significant sequelae from disease, injury or congenital abnormality affecting the bones,
joints, muscles or tendons with or without surgery require full evaluation prior to a fit assessment.
(b) Abnormal physique, including obesity, or muscular weakness may require aero-medical assessment and
particular attention should be paid to an aero-medical assessment in the working environment.
(c) Locomotor dysfunction, amputations, malformations, loss of function and progressive osteoarthritic
disorders should be assessed on an individual basis in conjunction with the appropriate operational expert
with a knowledge of the complexity of the tasks of the applicant.
(d) Applicants with inflammatory, infiltrative or degenerative disease of the musculoskeletal system may be
assessed as fit provided the condition is in remission and the medication is acceptable.
AMC3 2.055 Psychiatry
(a) Disorders due to alcohol or other substance use
(1) A fit assessment may be considered after successful treatment, a period of documented sobriety or
freedom from substance use, and review by a psychiatric specialist. The Authority, with the advice
of the psychiatric specialist, should determine the duration of the period to be observed before a
medical certificate can be issued.
(2) Depending on the individual case, treatment may include in-patient treatment of some weeks.
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(3) Continuous follow-up, including blood testing and peer reports, may be required indefinitely.
(b) Mood disorder
Applicants with an established mood disorder should be assessed as unfit. After full recovery and after full
consideration of an individual case, a fit assessment may be considered depending on the characteristics
and gravity of the mood disorder. If stability on maintenance psychotropic medication is confirmed, a fit
assessment with an appropriate limitation may be considered. If the dosage of the medication is changed,
a further period of unfit assessment should be required. Regular specialist supervision should be required.
(c) Psychotic disorder
Applicants with a history, or the occurrence, of a functional psychotic disorder should be assessed as unfit.
A fit assessment may be considered if a cause can be unequivocally identified as one which is transient,
has ceased and the risk of recurrence is minimal.
(d) Deliberate self-harm
Applicants who have carried out a single self-destructive action or repeated acts of deliberate self- harm
should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered after full consideration of an individual
case which may require psychiatric or psychological evaluation. Neuropsychological evaluation may also
be required.
AMC3 2.060 Psychology
(a) If a psychological evaluation is indicated, it should be carried out by a psychologist taking into account the
ATC environment and the associated risks.
(b) Where there is established evidence that an applicant may have a psychological disorder, the applicant
should be referred for psychological opinion and advice.
(c) Established evidence should be verifiable information from an identifiable source related to the mental
fitness or personality of a particular individual. Sources for this information can be accidents or incidents,
problems in training or competence assessments, behaviour or knowledge relevant to the safe exercise of
the privileges of the licence.
(d) The psychological evaluation may include a collection of biographical data, the administration of aptitude,
as well as personality tests and psychological interview.
(e) The psychologist should submit a written report to the AME, AeMC or Authority as appropriate, detailing
his/her opinion and recommendation.
AMC3 2.065 Neurology
(a) Electroencephalography (EEG)
(1) EEG should be carried out when indicated by the applicant’s history or on clinical grounds.
(2) Epileptiform paroxysmal EEG abnormalities and focal slow waves should be disqualifying. A fit
assessment may be considered after further evaluation.
(b) Epilepsy
(1) Applicants who have experienced one or more convulsive episodes after the age of five should be
assessed as unfit.
(2) A fit assessment may be considered if:
(i) the applicant is seizure free and off medication for a period of at least 10 years;
(ii) full neurological evaluation shows that a seizure was caused by a specific non- recurrent
cause, such as trauma or toxin.
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(3) Applicants who have experienced an episode of benign Rolandic seizure may be assessed as fit provided
the seizure has been clearly diagnosed including a properly documented history and typical EEG result and
the applicant has been free of symptoms and off treatment for at least 10 years.
(c) Neurological disease
Applicants with any stationary or progressive disease of the nervous system which has caused or is likely
to cause a significant disability should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered after full
neurological evaluation in cases of minor functional losses associated with stationary disease.
(d) Disturbance of consciousness
Applicants with a history of one or more episodes of disturbed consciousness may be assessed as fit if the
condition can be satisfactorily explained by a non-recurrent cause. A full neurological evaluation is
required.
(e) Head injury
Applicants with a head injury which was severe enough to cause loss of consciousness or is associated
with penetrating brain injury should be evaluated by a consultant neurologist. A fit assessment may be
considered if there has been a full recovery and the risk of epilepsy is sufficiently low. Behavioural and
cognitive aspects should be taken into account.
AMC3 2.070 Visual system
(a) Eye examination
(1) At each aero-medical revalidation examination, the visual fitness should be assessed and the eyes
should be examined with regard to possible pathology.
(2) All abnormal and doubtful cases should be referred to an ophthalmologist. Conditions which
indicate ophthalmological examination include but are not limited to a substantial decrease in the
uncorrected visual acuity, any decrease in best corrected visual acuity and/or the occurrence of
eye disease, eye injury or eye surgery.
(3) Where ophthalmological examinations are required for any significant reason, this should be
imposed as a limitation on the medical certificate.
(4) The effect of multiple eye conditions should be evaluated by an ophthalmologist with regard to
possible cumulative effects. Functional testing in the working environment may be necessary to
consider a fit assessment.
(5) Visual acuity should be tested using Snellen charts, or equivalent, under appropriate illumination.
Where clinical evidence suggests that Snellen may not be appropriate, Landolt ‘C’ may be used.
(b) Comprehensive eye examination
A comprehensive eye examination by an eye specialist is required at the initial examination. All abnormal
and doubtful cases should be referred to an ophthalmologist. The examination should include:
(1) history;
(2) visual acuities near, intermediate and distant vision; uncorrected and with best optical correction
if needed;
(3) objective refraction hyperopic initial applicants with a hyperopia of more than +2 dioptres and
under the age of 25 in cycloplegia;
(4) ocular motility and binocular vision;
(5) colour vision;
(6) visual fields;
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(7) tonometry;
(8) examination of the external eye, anatomy, media (slit lamp) and fundoscopy;
(9) assessment of contrast and glare sensitivity.
(c) Routine eye examination
At each revalidation or renewal examination, the visual fitness should be assessed and the eyes should be
examined with regard to possible pathology. All abnormal and doubtful cases should be referred to an
ophthalmologist. This routine eye examination should include:
(1) history;
(2) visual acuities near, intermediate and distant vision; uncorrected and with best optical correction
if needed;
(3) morphology by ophthalmoscopy;
(4) further examination on clinical indication.
(d) Refractive error
(1) Applicants with a refractive error between +5.0/-6.0 dioptres may be assessed as fit provided
optimal correction has been considered and no significant pathology is demonstrated. If the
refractive error exceeds +3.0/-3.0 dioptres, a four-yearly follow-up by an eye specialist should be
required.
(2) Applicants with:
(i) a refractive error exceeding -6 dioptres;
(ii) an astigmatic component exceeding 3 dioptres; or
(iii) anisometropia exceeding 3 dioptres; may be considered for a fit assessment if:
(A) no significant pathology can be demonstrated;
(B) optimal correction has been considered;
(C) visual acuity is at least 6/6 (1.0) in each eye separately with normal visual fields
while wearing the optimal spectacle correction;
(D) two-yearly follow-up is undertaken by an eye specialist.
(3) Applicants with hypermetropia exceeding +5.0 dioptres may be assessed as fit subject to a
satisfactory ophthalmological evaluation provided there are adequate fusional reserves, normal
intraocular pressures and anterior angles and no significant pathology has been demonstrated.
Corrected visual acuity in each eye shall be 6/6 or better.
(4) Applicants with a large refractive error shall use contact lenses or high-index spectacle lenses.
(e) Convergence
Applicants with convergence outside the normal range may be assessed as fit provided it does not interfere
with near vision (3050 cm) or intermediate vision (100 cm) with or without correction.
(f) Substandard vision
(1) Applicants with reduced central vision in one eye may be assessed as fit for a revalidation or
renewal of a medical certificate if the binocular visual field is normal and the underlying pathology is
acceptable according to ophthalmological evaluation. Testing should include functional testing in
the appropriate working environment.
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(2) Applicants with acquired substandard vision in one eye (monocularity, functional monocular vision
including eye muscle imbalance) may be assessed as fit for revalidation or renewal if the
ophthalmological examination confirms that:
(i) the better eye achieves distant visual acuity of 1.0 (6/6), corrected or uncorrected;
(ii) the better eye achieves intermediate and near visual acuity of 0.7 (6/9), corrected or
uncorrected;
(iii) there is no significant ocular pathology;
(iv) a functional test in the working environment is satisfactory; and
(v) in the case of acute loss of vision in one eye, a period of adaptation time has passed from
the known point of visual loss, during which the applicant is assessed as unfit.
(3) An applicant with a monocular visual field defect may be assessed as fit if the binocular visual
fields are normal.
(g) Keratoconus
Applicants with keratoconus may be considered for a fit assessment if the visual requirements are met with
the use of corrective lenses and periodic review is undertaken by an ophthalmologist.
(h) Heterophoria
Applicants with heterophoria (imbalance of the ocular muscles) exceeding when measured with optimal
correction, if prescribed:
(1) at six metres:
2.0 prism dioptres in hyperphoria,
10.0 prism dioptres in esophoria,
8.0 prism dioptres in exophoria and
(2) at 33 centimetres:
1.0 prism dioptre in hyperphoria,
8.0 prism dioptres in esophoria,
12.0 prism dioptres in exophoria
may be assessed as fit provided that orthoptic evaluation demonstrates that the fusional reserves
are sufficient to prevent asthenopia and diplopia. The Netherlands Optical Society (TNO) testing or
equivalent should be carried out to demonstrate fusion.
(i) Eye surgery
(1) After refractive surgery or surgery of the cornea including cross linking, a fit assessment may be
considered, provided:
(i) satisfactory stability of refraction has been achieved (less than 0.75 dioptres variation
diurnally);
(ii) examination of the eye shows no post-operative complications;
(iii) glare sensitivity is normal;
(iv) mesopic contrast sensitivity is not impaired;
(v) evaluation is undertaken by an ophthalmologist.
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(2) Cataract surgery
Following intraocular lens surgery, including cataract surgery, a fit assessment may be considered
once recovery is complete and the visual requirements are met with or without correction.
Intraocular lenses should be monofocal and should not impair colour vision.
(3) Retinal surgery/retinal laser therapy
(i) After successful retinal surgery, applicants may be assessed as fit once the recovery is
complete. Annual ophthalmological follow-up may be necessary. Longer periods may be
acceptable after two years on recommendation of the ophthalmologist.
(ii) After successful retinal laser therapy, applicants may be assessed as fit provided an
ophthalmological evaluation shows stability.
(4) Glaucoma surgery
A fit assessment may be considered six months after successful glaucoma surgery, or earlier if
recovery is complete. Six-monthly ophthalmological examinations to follow up secondary
complications caused by the glaucoma may be necessary.
(5) Extraocular muscle surgery
A fit assessment may be considered not less than six months after surgery and after a satisfactory
ophthalmological evaluation.
(j) Visual correction
Spectacles should permit the licence holder to meet the visual requirements at all distances.
GM1 2.070 Visual system
COMPARISON OF DIFFERENT READING CHARTS (APPROXIMATE FIGURES)
(a) Test distance: 40 cm
Decimal
Nieden
Jäger
Snellen
N
Parinaud
1,0
1
2
1,5
3
2
0,8
2
3
2
4
3
0,7
3
4
2,5
0,6
4
5
3
5
4
0,5
5
5
6
5
0,4
7
9
4
8
6
0,35
8
10
4,5
8
0,32
9
12
5,5
10
10
0,3
9
12
12
0,25
9
12
14
0,2
10
14
7,5
16
14
0,16
11
14
12
20
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(b) Test distance: 80 cm
Decimal
Nieden
Jäger
Snellen
N
Parinaud
1,2
4
5
3
5
4
1,0
5
5
6
5
0,8
7
9
4
8.0
6
0,7
8
10
4,5
8
0,63
9
12
5,5
10
10
0,6
9
12
12
10
0,5
9
12
14
10
0,4
10
14
7,5
16
14
0,32
11
14
12
20
14
AMC3 2.075 Colour vision
(a) Pseudoisochromatic plate testing alone is not sufficient.
(b) Colour vision should be assessed using means to demonstrate normal trichromacy.
GM1 2.075 Colour vision
The means to demonstrate normal trichromacy include:
(a) anomaloscopy (Nagel or equivalent). This test is considered passed if the colour match is trichromatic and
the matching range is four scale units or less;
(b) Colour Assessment and Diagnosis (CAD) test.
AMC3 2.080 Otorhinolaryngology
(a) Examination
(1) An otorhinolaryngological examination includes:
(i) history;
(ii) clinical examination including otoscopy, rhinoscopy and examination of the mouth and
throat;
(iii) clinical examination of the vestibular system.
(2) Ear, nose and throat (ENT) specialists involved in the aero-medical assessment of air traffic
controllers should have an understanding of the functionality required by air traffic controllers whilst
exercising the privileges of their licence(s).
(3) Where a full aero-medical assessment and functional check are needed, due regard should be paid
to the operational environment in which the operational functions are undertaken.
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(b) Hearing
(1) The follow-up of an applicant with hypoacusis should be decided by the Authority. If at the next
annual test there is no indication of further deterioration, the normal frequency of testing may be
resumed.
(2) An appropriate prosthetic aid may be a special headset with individual earpiece volume controls.
Full functional and environmental assessments should be carried out with the chosen prosthetic
equipment in use.
(c) Ear conditions
An applicant with a single dry perforation of non-infectious origin and which does not interfere with the
normal function of the ear may be considered for a fit assessment.
(d) Vestibular disturbance
The presence of vestibular disturbance and spontaneous or positional nystagmus requires complete
vestibular evaluation by a specialist. Significant abnormal caloric or rotational vestibular responses are
disqualifying. At revalidation and renewal aero-medical examinations, abnormal vestibular responses
should be assessed in their clinical context.
(e) Speech disorder
Applicants with a speech disorder should be assessed with due regard to the operational environment in
which the operational functions are undertaken. Applicants with significant disorder of speech or voice
should be assessed as unfit.
GM1 2.080 Otorhinolaryngology
HEARING
(a) Speech discrimination test: discriminating speech against other noise including other sources of verbal
communication and ambient noise in the working environment, but not against engine noise.
(b) Functional hearing test: the objective of this test is to evaluate the controller’s ability to hear the full range of
communications that occur in an operational environment and not just through a headset or speaker.
(c) Prosthetic aid: the functional hearing test to be carried out with the prosthetic aid in use is to ensure that
the individual is able to perform the functions of his/her licence and that the equipment is not adversely
affected by interference from headsets or other factors.
(d) Pure-tone audiometry: testing at frequencies at or above 4 000 Hz will aid the early diagnosis of acoustic
neuroma, noise-induced hearing loss (NIH) and other disorders of hearing. Particular attention should be
paid in cases where there is a significant difference between thresholds of the left and right ear.
AMC3 2.085 Dermatology
(a) Referral to the Authority should be made if doubt exists about the fitness of an applicant with eczema
(exogenous and endogenous), severe psoriasis, chronic infections, drug-induced or bullous eruptions or
urticaria.
(b) Systemic effects of radiation or pharmacological treatment for a dermatological condition should be
evaluated before a fit assessment may be considered.
(c) An applicant with a skin condition that causes pain, discomfort, irritation or itching may only be assessed as
fit if the condition can be controlled and does not interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the
licence.
(d) In cases where a dermatological condition is associated with a systemic illness, full consideration should be
given to the underlying illness before a fit assessment may be considered.
AMC3 2.090 Oncology
(a) Applicants who have been diagnosed with a malignant disease may be assessed as fit provided:
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(1) after primary treatment there is no evidence of residual malignant disease likely to interfere with the
safe exercise of the privileges of the licence;
(2) time appropriate to the type of tumour has elapsed since the end of primary treatment;
(3) the risk of incapacitation from a recurrence or metastasis is sufficiently low;
(4) there is no evidence of short- or long-term sequelae from treatment. Special attention should be
paid to applicants who have received anthracycline chemotherapy;
(5) satisfactory oncology follow-up reports are provided to the Authority.
(b) Applicants receiving ongoing chemotherapy or radiation treatment should be assessed as unfit.
(c) Applicants with a benign intracerebral tumour may be assessed as fit after satisfactory specialist and
neurological evaluation and the condition does not compromise the safe exercise of the privileges of the
licence.
(d) Applicants with pre-malignant conditions may be assessed as fit if treated or excised as necessary and
there is a regular follow-up.
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CHAPTER 3
AERO-MEDICAL EXAMINERS (AMES)
AMC 3.010 Requirements for the issue of an AME certificate
(a) Basic training course for AMEs
The basic training course for AMEs should consist of 60 hours theoretical and practical training, including
specific examination techniques.
(b) The syllabus for the basic training course should cover at least the following subjects:
Introduction to aviation medicine;
Basic aeronautical knowledge;
Aviation physiology;
Cardiovascular system;
Respiratory system;
Digestive system;
Metabolic and endocrine system;
Haematology;
Genitourinary system;
Obstetrics and gynaecology;
Musculoskeletal system;
Psychiatry;
Psychology;
Neurology;
Visual system and colour vision;
Otorhinolaryngology;
Oncology;
Incidents and accidents, escape and survival;
Legislation, rules and regulations;
Medication and air traffic control.
Medication and flying.
AMC 3.015 Requirements for the extension of privileges
(a) Advanced training course for AMEs
The advanced training course for AMEs should consist of another 60 hours of theoretical and practical
training, including specific examination techniques.
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(b) The syllabus for the advanced training course should cover at least the following subjects:
Pilot and Air Traffic Controller working environment;
Ophthalmology, including demonstration and practical training;
Otorhinolaryngology, including demonstration and practical training;
Clinical medicine;
Cardiovascular system;
Neurology;
Psychiatry;
Oncology;
Metabolic and endocrine systems;
Human factors in aviation with a specific focus on the air traffic control environment;
Problematic use of substances.
(c) Practical training in an AeMC should be under the guidance and supervision of the head of the AeMC.
(d) After the successful completion of the practical training, a report of demonstrated competency should be
issued.
GM 3.030 Refresher training in aviation medicine
(a) During the period of authorisation, an AME should attend 20 hours of refresher training.
(b) A proportionate number of refresher training hours should be provided by, or conducted under the direct
supervision of the Authority or the Medical Assessor.
(c) Attendance at scientific meetings, congresses and flight deck and ATC experience may be approved by the
Authority for a specified number of hours against the training obligations of the AME.
(d) Scientific meetings that should be accredited by the Authority are:
(1) European Conference of Aerospace Medicine
(2) International Academy of Aviation and Space Medicine Annual Congresses;
(3) Aerospace Medical Association Annual Scientific Meetings; and
(4) other scientific meetings, as organised or approved by the Medical Assessor.
____________________________________________
The Director General, in exercise of the powers conferred by Section 17(1) of the Civil Aviation
Authority Bahamas Act, 2021 (No. 2 of 2021) hereby issues the forgoing regulation.
Issued the 25
th
day of March 2021
DIRECTOR GENERAL
CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY BAHAMAS